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11,300
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What is the term for the process in which an area that has never before been colonized changes through time?
|
[
"A. continuous succession",
"B. ecological succession",
"C. environmental succession",
"D. colony succession"
] |
B. ecological succession
|
Document 1 ::: Succession was among the first theories advanced in ecology. Ecological succession was first documented in the Indiana Dunes of Northwest Indiana and remains an important ecological topic of study. Over time, the understanding of succession has changed from a linear progression to a stable climax state, to a more complex, cyclical model that de-emphasizes the idea of organisms having fixed roles or relationships.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: autecology A major sub-field of ecology which studies the dynamics of populations and the ways in which they interact with the environment. Also called population ecology. autopoiesis The phenomenon by which a system is capable of producing and maintaining itself by creating its own parts. The term has often been applied to the self-maintaining chemistry of biological cells. autotroph See producer.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: For example, a multiple-choice exam designed to assess knowledge of key concepts in natural selection does not meet a number of standards of quality control. One problem with the exam is that the two members of each of several pairs of parallel items, with each pair designed to measure exactly one key concept in natural selection, sometimes have very different levels of difficulty. Another problem is that the multiple-choice exam overestimates knowledge of natural selection as reflected in student performance on a diagnostic essay exam and a diagnostic oral exam, two instruments with reasonably good construct validity. Although scoring concept inventories in the form of essay or oral exams is labor-intensive, costly, and difficult to implement with large numbers of students, such exams can offer a more realistic appraisal of the actual levels of students' conceptual mastery as well as their misconceptions. Recently, however, computer technology has been developed that can score essay responses on concept inventories in biology and other domains, promising to facilitate the scoring of concept inventories organized as (transcribed) oral exams as well as essays.
Document 7 ::: Novel ecosystems "differ in composition and/or function from present and past systems". Novel ecosystems are the hallmark of the recently proposed anthropocene epoch. They have no natural analogs due to human alterations on global climate systems, invasive species, a global mass extinction, and disruption of the global nitrogen cycle. Novel ecosystems are creating many different kinds of dilemmas for terrestrial and marine conservation biologists. On a more local scale, abandoned lots, agricultural land, old buildings, field boundary stone walls or residential gardens provide study sites on the history and dynamics of ecology in novel ecosystems.
Document 8 ::: Some North American universities are home to degree programs titled Ecology and Evolutionary Biology, offering integrated studies in the disciplines of ecology and evolutionary biology. The wording is intended as representing the alternative approach from the frequently used pairing of Cell and Molecular Biology, while being more inclusive than the terminology of Botany or Zoology. Recently, due to advances in the fields of genetics and molecular biology, research and education in ecology and evolutionary biology has integrated many molecular techniques. A program that focuses on the relationships and interactions that range across levels of biological organization based on a scientific study is Ecology and Evolutionary Biology.
Document 9 ::: Each participant was identified as having well or poorly defined prior attitudes toward being an environmentalist or conservationist. Participants then completed one of two versions of a questionnaire designed to bring to mind either past pro-ecology behaviors or past anti-ecology behaviors. For example, questions such as "Have you ever recycled?"
Document 10 ::: Since many students who apply to graduate programs in biology do so during the first half of their fourth year, the scope of most questions is largely that of the first three years of a standard American undergraduate biology curriculum. A sampling of test item content is given below:
|
11,301
|
All the major landmasses moved together to form one supercontinent in which period?
|
[
"A. Mesozoic",
"B. permian",
"C. cambrian",
"D. Cenozoic"
] |
B. permian
|
Document 1 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 2 ::: Specifically, it asks questions about where microbes live, their local and global abundance, their structural and functional biochemistry, how they have evolved, biomineralization, and their preservation potential and presence in the rock record. In many ways, GMG appears to be equivalent to geobiology, but differs in scope: geobiology focuses on the role of all life, while GMG is strictly microbial. Regardless, it is these tiniest creatures that dominated to history of life integrated over time and seem to have had the most far-reaching effects.
Document 3 ::: By combining various petrological, crystallographic, and paleontological tools, geologists are able to chronicle the geological history of the Earth as a whole. One aspect is to demonstrate the age of the Earth. Geology provides evidence for plate tectonics, the evolutionary history of life, and the Earth's past climates.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: In geology a debate remains open concerning the use of Myr (duration) plus Ma (million years ago) versus using only the term Ma. In either case the term Ma is used in geology literature conforming to ISO 31-1 (now ISO 80000-3) and NIST 811 recommended practices. Traditional style geology literature is written The Cretaceous started 145 Ma and ended 66 Ma, lasting for 79 Myr. The "ago" is implied, so that any such year number "X Ma" between 66 and 145 is "Cretaceous", for good reason.
Document 6 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Edaphology Environmental chemistry Environmental science Gemology Geochemistry Geodesy Physical geography (outline) Atmospheric science / Meteorology (outline) Biogeography / Phytogeography Climatology / Paleoclimatology / Palaeogeography Coastal geography / Oceanography Edaphology / Pedology or Soil science Geobiology Geology (outline) (Geomorphology, Mineralogy, Petrology, Sedimentology, Speleology, Tectonics, Volcanology) Geostatistics Glaciology Hydrology (outline)/ Limnology / Hydrogeology Landscape ecology Quaternary science Geophysics (outline) Paleontology Paleobiology Paleoecology
Document 9 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 10 ::: Correcting for discordancies can be done in a number of ways and utilizing a number of technologies or field research results from studies in other disciplines. In this example, the study of layered rocks and the fossils they contain is called biostratigraphy and utilizes amassed geobiology and paleobiological knowledge. Fossils can be used to recognize rock layers of the same or different geologic ages, thereby coordinating locally occurring geologic stages to the overall geologic timeline. The pictures of the fossils of monocellular algae in this USGS figure were taken with a scanning electron microscope and have been magnified 250 times.
|
11,302
|
A problem with using food chains to describe ecosystems is that some organisms can feed on or be consumed by species from more than one of what level?
|
[
"A. biome level",
"B. trophic level",
"C. habitat level",
"D. pH level"
] |
B. trophic level
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: These questions are difficult for land managers to address while the boundary between ecosystems remains unclear; even though decisions in one ecosystem will affect the other. We need better understanding of the interactions and interdependencies of these ecosystems and the processes that maintain them before we can begin to address these questions. Ecosystem ecology is an inherently interdisciplinary field of study.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
11,303
|
What is the practical application of scientific principles and discoveries to develop things that make our lives easier?
|
[
"A. component",
"B. experiment",
"C. engineering",
"D. Movement"
] |
C. engineering
|
Document 1 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 4 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 5 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 6 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 7 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 8 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 9 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 10 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
|
11,304
|
In plants, a cell plate is formed during cell cytokinesis by golgi vesicles fusing at the what?
|
[
"A. mitosis plate",
"B. tectonic plate",
"C. chromosomes plate",
"D. metaphase plate"
] |
D. metaphase plate
|
Document 1 ::: (B) Metabolic processes include the synthesis of CAPs (gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 2 ::: metabolism metamorphosis metaphase The third phase of mitosis, in which duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell is separated into two identical daughter cells. During metaphase, the cell's chromosomes align themselves in the middle of the cell through a type of cellular "tug of war". microbiology The study of microscopic organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi and protozoa.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: Methods of importance to cellular biology, such as fluorescence probes (e.g., FRAP, FRET and GFP) and imaging, will be covered as appropriate within the context of the content below. A. Cellular Compartments of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes: Organization, Dynamics and Functions Cellular membrane systems (e.g., structure and transport across membrane) Nucleus (e.g., envelope and matrix) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (e.g., biogenesis and evolution) B. Cell Surface and Communication Extracellular matrix (including cell walls) Cell adhesion and junctions Signal transduction Receptor function Excitable membrane systems C. Cytoskeleton, Motility and Shape Regulation of assembly and disassembly of filament systems Motor function, regulation and diversity D. Protein, Processing, Targeting and Turnover Translocation across membranes Posttranslational modification Intracellular trafficking Secretion and endocytosis Protein turnover (e.g., proteosomes, lysosomes, damaged protein response) E. Cell Division, Differentiation and Development Cell cycle, mitosis and cytokinesis Meiosis and gametogenesis Fertilization and early embryonic development (including positional information, homeotic genes, tissue-specific expression, nuclear and cytoplasmic interactions, growth factors and induction, environment, stem cells and polarity)
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
Document 8 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 9 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,305
|
What is the type of volcano with a tall cone shape that you picture when picturing a volcano?
|
[
"A. active",
"B. inactive",
"C. advanced",
"D. composite"
] |
D. composite
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 6 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 7 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 8 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
|
11,306
|
The amount of what entering the eyes helps control the biological clock?
|
[
"A. energy",
"B. air",
"C. heat",
"D. light"
] |
D. light
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 3 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 7 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 10 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
|
11,307
|
Protists are classified as animal-like, plant-like, or what else?
|
[
"A. virus - like",
"B. pathogen - like",
"C. fungus-like",
"D. bacteria - like"
] |
C. fungus-like
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 6 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: The five-kingdom model remained the accepted classification until the development of molecular phylogenetics in the late 20th century, when it became apparent that protists are a paraphyletic group from which animals, fungi and plants evolved from, and the three-domain system (Bacteria, Archaea, Eukarya) became prevalent. Today, protists are not treated as a formal taxon, but the term is commonly used for convenience in two ways: Phylogenetic definition: protists are a paraphyletic group. A protist is any eukaryote that is not an animal, land plant or fungus, thus excluding many unicellular groups like the fungal Microsporidia, Chytridiomycetes and yeasts, and the non-unicellular Myxozoan animals included in Protista in the past. Functional definition: protists are essentially those eukaryotes that are never multicellular, that either exist as independent cells, or if they occur in colonies, do not show differentiation into tissues. While in popular usage, this definition excludes the variety of non-colonial multicellularity types that protists exhibit, such as aggregative (e.g. choanoflagellates) or complex multicellularity (e.g. brown algae).
|
11,308
|
Satellite and schwann cells are the two types of what kind of cell found in the pns?
|
[
"A. osteoclast",
"B. glial",
"C. dendritic",
"D. epidermal"
] |
B. glial
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: These questions include how signals are processed by neurites and somas and how neurotransmitters and electrical signals are used to process information in a neuron. Neurites are thin extensions from a neuronal cell body, consisting of dendrites (specialized to receive synaptic inputs from other neurons) and axons (specialized to conduct nerve impulses called action potentials). Somas are the cell bodies of the neurons and contain the nucleus.Another major area of cellular neuroscience is the investigation of the development of the nervous system. Questions include the patterning and regionalization of the nervous system, axonal and dendritic development, trophic interactions, synapse formation and the implication of fractones in neural stem cells, differentiation of neurons and glia (neurogenesis and gliogenesis), and neuronal migration.Computational neurogenetic modeling is concerned with the development of dynamic neuronal models for modeling brain functions with respect to genes and dynamic interactions between genes, on the cellular level (CNGM can also be used to model neural systems as well).
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 8 ::: Over time the scaffolding will dissolve and safely exit the body leaving healthy nerves in its place. This technology is the combination of stem cell research and nanotechnology. The ability to be able to repair damaged nerves is the greatest challenge and prize for many researchers as well as a huge step for the medical field.
Document 9 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,309
|
What compound has positive and negative ions?
|
[
"A. covalent",
"B. hydrocarbon",
"C. protein",
"D. ionic"
] |
D. ionic
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 4 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 5 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: The study of molecules by molecular physics and theoretical chemistry is largely based on quantum mechanics and is essential for the understanding of the chemical bond. The simplest of molecules is the hydrogen molecule-ion, H2+, and the simplest of all the chemical bonds is the one-electron bond. H2+ is composed of two positively charged protons and one negatively charged electron, which means that the Schrödinger equation for the system can be solved more easily due to the lack of electron–electron repulsion. With the development of fast digital computers, approximate solutions for more complicated molecules became possible and are one of the main aspects of computational chemistry.
Document 8 ::: The annual AP Chemistry examination, which is typically administered in May, is divided into two major sections (multiple-choice questions and free response essays).
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: The GRE subject test in chemistry is a standardized test in the United States created by the Educational Testing Service, and is designed to assess a candidate's potential for graduate or post-graduate study in the field of chemistry. It contains questions from many fields of chemistry. 15% of the questions will come from analytical chemistry, 25% will come from inorganic chemistry, 30% will come from organic chemistry and 30% will come from physical chemistry.This exam, like all the GRE subject tests, is paper-based, as opposed to the GRE general test which is usually computer-based. It contains 130 questions, which are to be answered within 2 hours and 50 minutes.
|
11,310
|
What can be calculated given the mass and speed of an object?
|
[
"A. harmonic energy",
"B. systematic energy",
"C. kinetic energy",
"D. residual energy"
] |
C. kinetic energy
|
Document 1 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 2 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 5 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 6 ::: Approximately the top 400 students from the F=ma exam are invited to take a free-response, calculus-based exam covering all topics in introductory physics, including mechanics, electricity and magnetism, thermodynamics, fluids, relativity, waves, and nuclear and atomic physics. There are two parts in the exam, each allotted 90 minutes, and 6 problems in total. Prior to 2017, the exam could be taken at any time during a two-week window in March.
Document 7 ::: Task 1: "Answer retrieval" matching old post answers to newly posed questions, and Task 2: "Formula retrieval" matching old post formulae to new questions. Starting with the domain of mathematics, which involves formula language, the goal is to later extend the task to other domains (e.g., STEM disciplines, such as chemistry, biology, etc.), which employ other types of special notation (e.g., chemical formulae).The inverse of mathematical question answering—mathematical question generation—has also been researched. The PhysWikiQuiz physics question generation and test engine retrieves mathematical formulae from Wikidata together with semantic information about their constituting identifiers (names and values of variables).
Document 8 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 9 ::: AP Physics 1 is an algebra-based, introductory college-level physics course that includes mechanics topics such as motion, force, momentum, energy, harmonic motion, and rotation; The College Board published a curriculum framework that includes seven big ideas on which the AP Physics 1 and 2 courses are based, along with "enduring understandings" students are expected to acquire within each of the big ideas. :Questions for the exam are constructed with direct reference to items in the curriculum framework. Student understanding of each topic is tested with reference to multiple skills—that is, questions require students to use quantitative, semi-quantitative, qualitative, and experimental reasoning in each content area.
Document 10 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
|
11,311
|
Earthquakes mark the motions of colliding plates and the locations where plates plunge into what?
|
[
"A. the crust",
"B. the core",
"C. the mesosphere",
"D. the mantle"
] |
D. the mantle
|
Document 1 ::: This stable configuration is responsible for the geometry of plate motions at the surface due as well as mantle convection. Another name for the degree two structure, a roughly 200 kilometers (120 miles) thick layer of the lower mantle directly above the core–mantle boundary, is the D″ ("D double-prime" or "D prime prime").
Document 2 ::: How do mineral, and metal ore deposits form? What are the fundamental physics of plate tectonics and heat, mass, and fluid transfer through Earth's crust? How can people better interpret geophysical data used to determine the structure and properties of Earth's crust?
Document 3 ::: The mantle itself is divided into the upper mantle, transition zone, lower mantle and D′′ layer. Between the crust and the mantle is the Mohorovičić discontinuity.The seismic model of the Earth does not by itself determine the composition of the layers. For a complete model of the Earth, mineral physics is needed to interpret seismic velocities in terms of composition.
Document 4 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 5 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 6 ::: Most likely, there are many, forming a seismic array. The emphasis is on precision since much can be learned about the fault mechanics and seismic hazard, if the locations can be determined to be within a kilometer or two, for small earthquakes. For this, computer programs use an iterative process, involving a 'guess and correction' algorithm. As well, a very good model of the local crustal velocity structure is required: seismic velocities vary with the local geology. For P-waves, the relation between velocity and bulk density of the medium has been quantified in Gardner's relation.
Document 7 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 8 ::: Another theory is that the mantle flows neither in cells nor large plumes but rather as a series of channels just below Earth's crust, which then provide basal friction to the lithosphere. This theory, called "surge tectonics", was popularized during the 1980s and 1990s. Recent research, based on three-dimensional computer modelling, suggests that plate geometry is governed by a feedback between mantle convection patterns and the strength of the lithosphere.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
|
11,312
|
The ambrosia beetle bores holes in?
|
[
"A. leaves",
"B. dirt",
"C. flowers",
"D. tree bark"
] |
D. tree bark
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: Learning objectives include tree and shrub physiology, forest ecology, sustainable forest management, and trees as important renewable resources, and more. The field test also focuses on forest structure in relation to biotic and abiotic factors; silviculture techniques and tool use; and the identification and management of invasive species and diseases. The test's hands-on portion includes various tasks such as identifying trees, using common forestry tools, collecting tree core samples using an increment borer to determine tree age and historical influences, and tree planting using proper techniques.
|
11,313
|
What effect, related to weather forecasting, occurs not only for sound but for any wave when there is relative motion between the observer and the source?
|
[
"A. echo",
"B. pulse",
"C. precipitation",
"D. doppler"
] |
D. doppler
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: This relates to an understanding of the nature of the sound waves, how they vary and how they will interact with the environment. Mathematics of the environment. Materials science, surface friction, distance and areas familiar to a mechanical engineer.
Document 3 ::: Generally line source acoustic models trace sound ray bundles and calculate spreading loss along with ray bundle divergence (or convergence} from refractive phenomena. Diffraction is usually addressed by establishing secondary emitters at any points of topographic or anthropomorphic “sharpness” (such as noise barriers or building surfaces. Meteorology can be addressed in a statistical manner allowing for actual wind rose and wind speed statistics (along with thermocline data).
Document 4 ::: Diffraction is usually addressed by establishing secondary emitters at any points of topographic or anthropomorphic “sharpness” (such as noise barriers or building surfaces). Meteorology can be addressed in a statistical manner allowing for actual wind rose and wind speed statistics (along with thermocline data). Recent models have also attempted to predict levels of local air pollution based on an analysis of specific frequencies that are related to tire and engine noise.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 7 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 8 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 9 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 10 ::: There was a hard, universally used pass-fail criterion for the Eddy Test, and a second chance was normally never allowed. Eddy described the test as having questions with multiple-choice answers, with each of the answers giving some indication of the test-taker's mathematics/physics knowledge, creativity, reasoning ability, and general aptitude. Most answers were weighted – not simply right or wrong – and speed certainly affected the results. No copies of the actual test have been found.
|
11,314
|
What is the science of how traits are passed from parents to offspring?
|
[
"A. alleles",
"B. heredity",
"C. cross matching",
"D. genetics"
] |
B. heredity
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: Genetics is the scientific study of inheritance. Mendelian inheritance, specifically, is the process by which genes and traits are passed on from parents to offspring. It has several principles. The first is that genetic characteristics, alleles, are discrete and have alternate forms (e.g., purple vs. white or tall vs. dwarf), each inherited from one of two parents.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: Genetics influence individuals as they select their environment.
Document 8 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 9 ::: : 110 For example, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French naturalist who said the changes an organism makes as it adapts to its environment can be passed down to subsequent generations through gene expression (which genes get turned off). This has been taken up by the new field of epigenetics. : 160–167: 111 The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, one of the first geneticists.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,315
|
When an electron transitions from an excited state to a less excited state, or ground state, the difference in energy is emitted as a what?
|
[
"A. quark",
"B. photon",
"C. neutron",
"D. nucleus"
] |
B. photon
|
Document 1 ::: The Bohr model was later replaced by quantum mechanics in which the electron occupies an atomic orbital rather than an orbit, but the allowed energy levels of the hydrogen atom remained the same as in the earlier theory. Spectral emission occurs when an electron transitions, or jumps, from a higher energy state to a lower energy state. To distinguish the two states, the lower energy state is commonly designated as n′, and the higher energy state is designated as n. The energy of an emitted photon corresponds to the energy difference between the two states.
Document 2 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 3 ::: When an excited electron falls back to a lower energy state again, it is called electron relaxation. This can be done by radiation of a photon or giving the energy to a third spectator particle as well.In physics there is a specific technical definition for energy level which is often associated with an atom being excited to an excited state. The excited state, in general, is in relation to the ground state, where the excited state is at a higher energy level than the ground state.
Document 4 ::: In atomic physics and chemistry, an atomic electron transition (also called an electronic (de-)excitation, atomic transition, or quantum jump) is a change (or jump) of an electron from one energy level to another within an atom or artificial atom. It appears discontinuous as the electron "jumps" from one quantized energy level to another, typically in a few nanoseconds or less. Electron transitions cause the emission or absorption of electromagnetic radiation in the form of quantized units called photons. Their statistics are Poissonian, and the time between jumps is exponentially distributed.
Document 5 ::: But when the nucleus change its charge and/or mass (by emitting or capturing a particle), the atom can become the one of another element. Special relativity explained how the mass defect is related to the energy produced or consumed in reactions. The branch of physics that studies transformations and the structure of nuclei is now called nuclear physics, contrasted to atomic physics that studies the structure and properties of atoms ignoring most nuclear aspects.
Document 6 ::: Bohr also postulated that electromagnetic radiation is absorbed or emitted when an electron moves from one orbit to another. Because only certain electron orbits are permitted, the emission of light accompanying a jump of an electron from an excited energy state to ground state produces a unique emission spectrum for each element. Bohr later received the Nobel Prize in physics for this work.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: According to the laws of quantum mechanics, for systems with only one electron, a level of energy is associated with each electron configuration and in certain conditions, electrons are able to move from one configuration to another by the emission or absorption of a quantum of energy, in the form of a photon.Knowledge of the electron configuration of different atoms is useful in understanding the structure of the periodic table of elements. This is also useful for describing the chemical bonds that hold atoms together. In bulk materials, this same idea helps explain the peculiar properties of lasers and semiconductors.
Document 9 ::: : 11–142 In 1967, he published another thesis jointly written by J.B. Hasted and D.K. Bohme on physics of atomic collision and potential energy curves— their work was supported and funded by the United States Department of Defense.While in the United Kingdom, Alam continued publishing and working on the atomic physics and atomic collisions, collaborating with many other of his British colleagues. However, Alam lost interests in atomic physics and became interested in computer programming and mathematics. : 80, 425 In 1970, he published a paper on gamma rays and performed an experiment on isomers, proposing and later proving mathematically that, in the isomer state, the average kinetic energy associated with the decay process of Isomer state is about the same in the ground state of fission.
Document 10 ::: Quantum chemistry, a subfield of physical chemistry especially concerned with the application of quantum mechanics to chemical problems, provides tools to determine how strong and what shape bonds are, how nuclei move, and how light can be absorbed or emitted by a chemical compound. Spectroscopy is the related sub-discipline of physical chemistry which is specifically concerned with the interaction of electromagnetic radiation with matter. Another set of important questions in chemistry concerns what kind of reactions can happen spontaneously and which properties are possible for a given chemical mixture.
|
11,316
|
Water from the land and oceans enters the atmosphere by which process?
|
[
"A. transpiration",
"B. condensation",
"C. absorption",
"D. evaporation"
] |
D. evaporation
|
Document 1 ::: The movement of heat embodied in water vapour as it leaves vegetation is not well understood given the complexity of the dynamics. While the movement of water into the atmosphere through evapotranspiration and consequent cooling is broadly accepted, the movement of water further into the atmosphere is more contentious. There are observable phenomena that provide some clues; mornings following cloudless skies will be cooler than cloudy nights, and deserts get very hot during the day and cool rapidly at night. Heat transfer physics are complex, and involve energy carriers including photons.
Document 2 ::: Hydrology, oceanography and limnology are studies which focus on the movement, distribution, and quality of the water and involves all the components of the hydrologic cycle on the Earth and its atmosphere (or hydrosphere). "Sub-disciplines of hydrology include hydrometeorology, surface water hydrology, hydrogeology, watershed science, forest hydrology, and water chemistry." Glaciology covers the icy parts of the Earth (or cryosphere). Atmospheric sciences cover the gaseous parts of the Earth (or atmosphere) between the surface and the exosphere (about 1000 km). Major subdisciplines include meteorology, climatology, atmospheric chemistry, and atmospheric physics.
Document 3 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 6 ::: The transport of water along this pathway occurs in components, variously defined among scientific disciplines: Soil physics characterizes water in soil in terms of tension, Physiology of plants and animals characterizes water in organisms in terms of diffusion pressure deficit, and Meteorology uses vapour pressure or relative humidity to characterize atmospheric water.SPAC integrates these components and is defined as a: ...concept recognising that the field with all its components (soil, plant, animals and the ambient atmosphere taken together) constitutes a physically integrated, dynamic system in which the various flow processes involving energy and matter occur simultaneously and independently like links in the chain. This characterises the state of water in different components of the SPAC as expressions of the energy level or water potential of each. Modelling of water transport between components relies on SPAC, as do studies of water potential gradients between segments.
Document 7 ::: At MIT, the major is described in their curriculum, including the following: The Bachelor of Science in Environmental Engineering Science emphasizes the fundamental physical, chemical, and biological processes necessary for understanding the interactions between man and the environment. Issues considered include the provision of clean and reliable water supplies, flood forecasting and protection, development of renewable and nonrenewable energy sources, causes and implications of climate change, and the impact of human activities on natural cycles
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: Physics dictates that saturation vapor pressure increases by 7% when temperature rises by 1 °C (as described in the Clausius-Clapeyron equation).The strength of the water cycle and its changes over time are of considerable interest, especially as the climate changes. The essence of the overall hydrological cycle is the evaporation of moisture in one place and the precipitation in other places. In particular, evaporation exceeds precipitation over the oceans, which allows moisture to be transported by the atmosphere from the oceans onto land where precipitation exceeds evapotranspiration, and the runoff flows into streams and rivers and discharges into the ocean, completing the cycle.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
11,317
|
What country put seven salyut space stations into orbit between 1971 and 1982?
|
[
"A. United States",
"B. Japan",
"C. soviet union",
"D. China"
] |
C. soviet union
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 4 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 5 ::: During the Cold War, in 1957, the Soviet Union successfully launched the first Earth orbiting artificial satellite, Sputnik I. The event triggered alarm in United States by heightening fears there that the Soviet Union was achieving technological and strategic superiority. One response to what the Americans termed the Sputnik crisis was to invest money and expertise towards a re-invigoration of the country's science and technological educational system. It was during this period that the BSCS was engaged to develop updated high school biology textbooks.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: Each of the three participating countries sent a team of six students, and four theoretical tasks were to be solved. Guidelines for the next competitions were already suggested. The second chemistry Olympiad took place in 1969 in Poland, and Bulgaria also participated, with USSR and GDR only sending observers.
Document 8 ::: To give them something relevant to study, he began using examples from the Apollo program as applications of elementary physics. O'Neill posed the question during an extra seminar he gave to a few of his students: "Is the surface of a planet really the right place for an expanding technological civilization?" His students' research convinced him that the answer was no. O'Neill was inspired by the papers written by his students.
Document 9 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
11,318
|
The result of what, in places like the amazon rainforest, is that food will be harder to produce, clean water will be harder to find, and development of new medicines will become slower?
|
[
"A. pollution loss",
"B. environmnental loss",
"C. biodiversity loss",
"D. biological loss"
] |
C. biodiversity loss
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 6 ::: Many people worry about human impacts on the environment. These include impacts on the atmosphere, land, and water resources. : 21 Human activities now have an impact on Earth's geology and ecosystems. This led Paul Crutzen to call the current geological epoch the Anthropocene. For example, the impact of human activity on ecosystems can reach tipping points in the climate system.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 9 ::: Each participant was identified as having well or poorly defined prior attitudes toward being an environmentalist or conservationist. Participants then completed one of two versions of a questionnaire designed to bring to mind either past pro-ecology behaviors or past anti-ecology behaviors. For example, questions such as "Have you ever recycled?"
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11,319
|
What does rising and sinking air influence in a region?
|
[
"A. tides",
"B. erosion",
"C. temperature",
"D. precipitation"
] |
D. precipitation
|
Document 1 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 2 ::: Climatology considers the past and can help predict future climate change. Phenomena of climatological interest include the atmospheric boundary layer, circulation patterns, heat transfer (radiative, convective and latent), interactions between the atmosphere and the oceans and land surface (particularly vegetation, land use and topography), and the chemical and physical composition of the atmosphere. Related disciplines include astrophysics, atmospheric physics, chemistry, ecology, physical geography, geology, geophysics, glaciology, hydrology, oceanography, and volcanology.
Document 3 ::: Air temperatures may vary much more, and though the water has a moderating effect, the air temperature more variable and may be much more extreme. : Ch 1.4 Seawater and splash zone chemistry: Ch 1.5 Biofouling: Ch 1.5 Currents cause drag loading on structures and equipment.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 6 ::: Determine what geologic processes have shaped the local terrain and influenced the chemistry. Such processes could include water or wind erosion, sedimentation, hydrothermal mechanisms, volcanism, and cratering.
Document 7 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 8 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 9 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
Document 10 ::: Meteorological phenomena are described and quantified by the variables of Earth's atmosphere: temperature, air pressure, water vapour, mass flow, and the variations and interactions of these variables, and how they change over time. Different spatial scales are used to describe and predict weather on local, regional, and global levels. Meteorology, climatology, atmospheric physics, and atmospheric chemistry are sub-disciplines of the atmospheric sciences.
|
11,320
|
Refracting and reflecting telescopes are optical telescopes that use lenses to gather what?
|
[
"A. sound",
"B. electricity",
"C. light",
"D. magnetic force"
] |
C. light
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: In recent years, multiple websites that maintain lists of conceptual questions have been created by instructors for various disciplines. Some books on physics provide many examples of conceptual questions as well.Multiple conceptual questions can be assembled into a concept inventory to test the working knowledge of students at the beginning of a course or to track the improvement in conceptual understanding throughout the course. == References ==
Document 7 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
11,321
|
Via what process do substance move from one cell to another?
|
[
"A. plasmodesmata",
"B. reverse transferase",
"C. downregulation",
"D. autolysis"
] |
A. plasmodesmata
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: Methods of importance to cellular biology, such as fluorescence probes (e.g., FRAP, FRET and GFP) and imaging, will be covered as appropriate within the context of the content below. A. Cellular Compartments of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes: Organization, Dynamics and Functions Cellular membrane systems (e.g., structure and transport across membrane) Nucleus (e.g., envelope and matrix) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (e.g., biogenesis and evolution) B. Cell Surface and Communication Extracellular matrix (including cell walls) Cell adhesion and junctions Signal transduction Receptor function Excitable membrane systems C. Cytoskeleton, Motility and Shape Regulation of assembly and disassembly of filament systems Motor function, regulation and diversity D. Protein, Processing, Targeting and Turnover Translocation across membranes Posttranslational modification Intracellular trafficking Secretion and endocytosis Protein turnover (e.g., proteosomes, lysosomes, damaged protein response) E. Cell Division, Differentiation and Development Cell cycle, mitosis and cytokinesis Meiosis and gametogenesis Fertilization and early embryonic development (including positional information, homeotic genes, tissue-specific expression, nuclear and cytoplasmic interactions, growth factors and induction, environment, stem cells and polarity)
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 10 ::: (B) Metabolic processes include the synthesis of CAPs (gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
|
11,322
|
What is a stellar remnant that is very dense?
|
[
"A. asteroids",
"B. the sun",
"C. white star",
"D. white dwarf"
] |
D. white dwarf
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: There is evidence that white dwarf stars have a core of crystallized carbon and oxygen nuclei. The largest of these found in the universe so far, BPM 37093, is located 50 light-years (4.7×1014 km) away in the constellation Centaurus. A news release from the Harvard-Smithsonian Center for Astrophysics described the 2,500-mile (4,000 km)-wide stellar core as a diamond, and it was named as Lucy, after the Beatles' song "Lucy in the Sky With Diamonds"; however, it is more likely an exotic form of carbon.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: The preliminary round of the Sri Lankan Astronomy and Astrophysics Olympiad competition is a two-hour theory paper on Astronomy and Astrophysics. It usually consists of 20-30 multiple choice questions and five structured essay type questions. The competition is conducted in three languages Sinhala, Tamil and English.
Document 7 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 8 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: A Question and Answer Guide to Astronomy is a book about astronomy and cosmology, and is intended for a general audience. The book was written by Pierre-Yves Bely, Carol Christian, and Jean-Rene Roy, and published in English by Cambridge University Press in 2010. It was originally written in French.
|
11,323
|
What methods allow scientists to add to scientific knowledge and gain a better understanding of the world?
|
[
"A. through investigations",
"B. close investigations",
"C. slow investigations",
"D. early investigations"
] |
A. through investigations
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: These include Eric Mazur's peer instruction, as well as various tutorials in physics. Scientific inquiry is another technique that provides an active engagement opportunity for students and incorporates metacognition and critical thinking. Success with inquiry-based learning activities relies on a deep foundation of factual knowledge.
Document 3 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: Researchers are asking questions such as "why do we have laboratory work in the curriculum? What is distinctive about laboratory work that cannot be met elsewhere in the curriculum?" Researchers are asking for evidence that the investment of space, time and resources in chemistry laboratories provides value to student learning.
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 9 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 10 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
|
11,324
|
What is the largest level of organization?
|
[
"A. organelle",
"B. organism",
"C. genome",
"D. protein"
] |
B. organism
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 9 ::: (b) The size of the merged department of Neurosciences, Physiology and Pharmacology means less interaction between staff, and less collegiate spirit. (c) The changes created two extra levels of administration, so that now five levels existed between academics and the provost. Staff were told at the time that the new organisation would be rolled out to other Faculties across UCL, though this has not happened.
Document 10 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
|
11,325
|
Living species of chordates are classified into three major subphyla: vertebrata, urochordata, and what?
|
[
"A. invertebrates",
"B. xerophyte",
"C. spirogyra",
"D. cephalochordata"
] |
D. cephalochordata
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: The test specifications for the Biology section changed in 2014. These changes reflected a shift on the way that Biology is taught in survey courses. This means that the questions now focus on "complex interactions within biological systems, rather than viewing biology in a reductionist manner". There are also changes to the Quantitative Reasoning section.
|
11,326
|
What force explains why a tennis ball bounces differently on different surfaces, and shoes slip on some surfaces but stick on others?
|
[
"A. temperature",
"B. vibration",
"C. kinetics",
"D. friction"
] |
D. friction
|
Document 1 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 2 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 3 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 6 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 7 ::: "In Physics II.3 and Metaphysics V.2, Aristotle holds that there are four kinds of answers to "why" questions: Matter The material cause of a change or movement. This is the aspect of the change or movement that is determined by the material that composes the moving or changing things. For a table, this might be wood; for a statue, it might be bronze or marble.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: One primary goal of PER is to develop pedagogical techniques and strategies that will help students learn physics more effectively and help instructors to implement these techniques. Because even basic ideas in physics can be confusing, together with the possibility of scientific misconceptions formed from teaching through analogies, lecturing often does not erase common misconceptions about physics that students acquire before they are taught physics. Research often focuses on learning more about common misconceptions that students bring to the physics classroom so that techniques can be devised to help students overcome these misconceptions. In most introductory physics courses, mechanics is usually the first area of physics that is taught.
|
11,327
|
The term ion applies to entire molecules that are?
|
[
"A. electrically charged",
"B. positively charged protons",
"C. magnetic",
"D. neutrally charged"
] |
A. electrically charged
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 4 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The study of molecules by molecular physics and theoretical chemistry is largely based on quantum mechanics and is essential for the understanding of the chemical bond. The simplest of molecules is the hydrogen molecule-ion, H2+, and the simplest of all the chemical bonds is the one-electron bond. H2+ is composed of two positively charged protons and one negatively charged electron, which means that the Schrödinger equation for the system can be solved more easily due to the lack of electron–electron repulsion. With the development of fast digital computers, approximate solutions for more complicated molecules became possible and are one of the main aspects of computational chemistry.
Document 7 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: In quantum physics, organic chemistry, and biochemistry, the distinction from ions is dropped and molecule is often used when referring to polyatomic ions. In the kinetic theory of gases, the term molecule is often used for any gaseous particle regardless of its composition. This violates the definition that a molecule contain two or more atoms, since the noble gases are individual atoms.
Document 10 ::: This field covers chemical compounds that are not carbon-based, which are the subjects of organic chemistry. The distinction between the two disciplines is far from absolute, as there is much overlap in the subdiscipline of organometallic chemistry. It has applications in every aspect of the chemical industry, including catalysis, materials science, pigments, surfactants, coatings, medications, fuels, and agriculture.IonIs a particle, atom or molecule with a net electrical charge.
|
11,328
|
Silicon and germanium react with nitrogen at high temperature to form what?
|
[
"A. oxides",
"B. nitrides",
"C. carbonates",
"D. isotopes"
] |
B. nitrides
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The chemical element nitrogen is one of the most abundant elements in the universe and can form many compounds. It can take several oxidation states; but the most oxidation states are -3 and +3. Nitrogen can form nitride and nitrate ions. It also forms a part of nitric acid and nitrate salts. Nitrogen compounds also have an important role in organic chemistry, as nitrogen is part of proteins, amino acids and adenosine triphosphate.
Document 4 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 5 ::: Its solution chemistry is characterised by the formation of oxyanions. Germanium generally forms tetravalent (IV) compounds, and it can also form less stable divalent (II) compounds, in which it behaves more like a metal. Germanium analogues of all of the major types of silicates have been prepared.
Document 6 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 7 ::: Theoretical predictions of the vibrational frequencies were crucial in understanding the experimental observations of the spectra of a mixture of compounds. This may appear to be an obscure area of chemistry, but the differences between carbon and silicon chemistry is always a lively question, as are the differences between group 13 and group 14 (mainly the B and C differences). The silicon and germanium compounds were the subject of a Journal of Chemical Education article.
Document 8 ::: Researchers are asking questions such as "why do we have laboratory work in the curriculum? What is distinctive about laboratory work that cannot be met elsewhere in the curriculum?" Researchers are asking for evidence that the investment of space, time and resources in chemistry laboratories provides value to student learning.
Document 9 ::: Silicon already shows some incipient metallic behavior, particularly in the behavior of its oxide compounds and its reaction with acids as well as bases (though this takes some effort), and is hence often referred to as a metalloid rather than a nonmetal. However, metallicity does not become clear in group 14 until germanium and dominant until tin, with the growing importance of the lower +2 oxidation state.Silicon shows clear differences from carbon. For example, organic chemistry has very few analogies with silicon chemistry, while silicate minerals have a structural complexity unseen in oxocarbons.
Document 10 ::: Cluster chemistry Materials chemistry – preparation, characterization, and understanding of substances with a useful function. The field is a new breadth of study in graduate programs, and it integrates elements from all classical areas of chemistry with a focus on fundamental issues that are unique to materials. Primary systems of study include the chemistry of condensed phases (solids, liquids, polymers) and interfaces between different phases.
|
11,329
|
What bond is the force of attraction that holds together oppositely charged ions?
|
[
"A. harmonic",
"B. iconic",
"C. magnetic",
"D. ionic"
] |
D. ionic
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Several criteria influence the strength of the bonding: the nature of the cation, solvation effects, the nature of the π system, and the geometry of the interaction.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: In the (unrealistic) limit of "pure" ionic bonding, electrons are perfectly localized on one of the two atoms in the bond. Such bonds can be understood by classical physics. The forces between the atoms are characterized by isotropic continuum electrostatic potentials. Their magnitude is in simple proportion to the charge difference.Covalent bonds are better understood by valence bond (VB) theory or molecular orbital (MO) theory.
Document 6 ::: Similarly, theories from classical physics can be used to predict many ionic structures. With more complicated compounds, such as metal complexes, valence bond theory is less applicable and alternative approaches, such as the molecular orbital theory, are generally used. See diagram on electronic orbitals.
Document 7 ::: The study of molecules by molecular physics and theoretical chemistry is largely based on quantum mechanics and is essential for the understanding of the chemical bond. The simplest of molecules is the hydrogen molecule-ion, H2+, and the simplest of all the chemical bonds is the one-electron bond. H2+ is composed of two positively charged protons and one negatively charged electron, which means that the Schrödinger equation for the system can be solved more easily due to the lack of electron–electron repulsion. With the development of fast digital computers, approximate solutions for more complicated molecules became possible and are one of the main aspects of computational chemistry.
Document 8 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 9 ::: Task 1: "Answer retrieval" matching old post answers to newly posed questions, and Task 2: "Formula retrieval" matching old post formulae to new questions. Starting with the domain of mathematics, which involves formula language, the goal is to later extend the task to other domains (e.g., STEM disciplines, such as chemistry, biology, etc.), which employ other types of special notation (e.g., chemical formulae).The inverse of mathematical question answering—mathematical question generation—has also been researched. The PhysWikiQuiz physics question generation and test engine retrieves mathematical formulae from Wikidata together with semantic information about their constituting identifiers (names and values of variables).
Document 10 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
|
11,330
|
What is the pairing of an adult male to an adult female to produce young?
|
[
"A. evolution",
"B. mating",
"C. asexual reproduction",
"D. binary fission"
] |
B. mating
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Reproductive biology includes both sexual and asexual reproduction.Reproductive biology includes a wide number of fields: Reproductive systems Endocrinology Sexual development (Puberty) Sexual maturity Reproduction Fertility
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Biology, being the study of celular life, addresses reproduction in terms of growth and celular division (i.e., binary fission, mitosis and meiosis); however, the science of artificial reproduction is not restricted by the mirroring of these natural processes.The science of artificial reproduction is actually transcending the natural forms, and natural rules, of reproduction. For example, xenobots have redefined the classical conception of reproduction. Although xenobots are made of eukariotic cells they do not reproduce by mitosis, but rather by kinematic replication. Such constructive replication does not involve growing but rather building.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: In biology, the question of the individual is related to the definition of an organism, which is an important question in biology and philosophy of biology, despite there having been little work devoted explicitly to this question. An individual organism is not the only kind of individual that is considered as a "unit of selection". Genes, genomes, or groups may function as individual units.Asexual reproduction occurs in some colonial organisms so that the individuals are genetically identical. Such a colony is called a genet, and an individual in such a population is referred to as a ramet.
Document 7 ::: In biology, polyspermy describes the fertilization of an egg by more than one sperm. Diploid organisms normally contain two copies of each chromosome, one from each parent. The cell resulting from polyspermy, on the other hand, contains three or more copies of each chromosome—one from the egg and one each from multiple sperm.
Document 8 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 9 ::: Many eukaryotes (including animals and plants) exhibit asexual reproduction, which may be facultative or obligate in the life cycle, with sexual reproduction occurring more or less frequently.Individual organisms participating in a biological life cycle ordinarily age and die, while cells from these organisms that connect successive life cycle generations (germ line cells and their descendants) are potentially immortal. The basis for this difference is a fundamental problem in biology. The Russian biologist and historian Zhores A. Medvedev considered that the accuracy of genome replicative and other synthetic systems alone cannot explain the immortality of germ lines.
Document 10 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
|
11,331
|
The cell expels waste and other particles through a process called what?
|
[
"A. metamorphisis",
"B. biosynthesis",
"C. exocytosis",
"D. endocytosis"
] |
C. exocytosis
|
Document 1 ::: Methods of importance to cellular biology, such as fluorescence probes (e.g., FRAP, FRET and GFP) and imaging, will be covered as appropriate within the context of the content below. A. Cellular Compartments of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes: Organization, Dynamics and Functions Cellular membrane systems (e.g., structure and transport across membrane) Nucleus (e.g., envelope and matrix) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (e.g., biogenesis and evolution) B. Cell Surface and Communication Extracellular matrix (including cell walls) Cell adhesion and junctions Signal transduction Receptor function Excitable membrane systems C. Cytoskeleton, Motility and Shape Regulation of assembly and disassembly of filament systems Motor function, regulation and diversity D. Protein, Processing, Targeting and Turnover Translocation across membranes Posttranslational modification Intracellular trafficking Secretion and endocytosis Protein turnover (e.g., proteosomes, lysosomes, damaged protein response) E. Cell Division, Differentiation and Development Cell cycle, mitosis and cytokinesis Meiosis and gametogenesis Fertilization and early embryonic development (including positional information, homeotic genes, tissue-specific expression, nuclear and cytoplasmic interactions, growth factors and induction, environment, stem cells and polarity)
Document 2 ::: metabolism metamorphosis metaphase The third phase of mitosis, in which duplicated genetic material carried in the nucleus of a parent cell is separated into two identical daughter cells. During metaphase, the cell's chromosomes align themselves in the middle of the cell through a type of cellular "tug of war". microbiology The study of microscopic organisms, such as bacteria, viruses, archaea, fungi and protozoa.
Document 3 ::: (B) Metabolic processes include the synthesis of CAPs (gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 4 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 5 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 6 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 10 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
|
11,332
|
What are diodes, transistors, and integrated circuits examples of?
|
[
"A. electronic components",
"B. computer parts",
"C. machine parts",
"D. radio parts"
] |
A. electronic components
|
Document 1 ::: Many modern electronic devices are designed using quantum mechanics. Examples include lasers, electron microscopes, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) devices and the components used in computing hardware. The study of semiconductors led to the invention of the diode and the transistor, which are indispensable parts of modern electronics systems, computer and telecommunication devices. Another application is for making laser diodes and light-emitting diodes, which are a high-efficiency source of light.
Document 2 ::: Electronics deals with electrical circuits that involve active electrical components such as vacuum tubes, transistors, diodes, sensors and integrated circuits, and associated passive interconnection technologies. : 1–5, 71 The nonlinear behaviour of active components and their ability to control electron flows makes digital switching possible,: 75 and electronics is widely used in information processing, telecommunications, and signal processing. Interconnection technologies such as circuit boards, electronics packaging technology, and other varied forms of communication infrastructure complete circuit functionality and transform the mixed components into a regular working system. Today, most electronic devices use semiconductor components to perform electron control. The underlying principles that explain how semiconductors work are studied in solid state physics, whereas the design and construction of electronic circuits to solve practical problems are part of electronics engineering.
Document 3 ::: ABET-accredited electronics technician programs usually require at least two mathematics and physics courses besides the core competencies. Electronics technician curriculum generally consists of courses in basic electricity and electronics, including Ohm's Law, Parallel and Series Circuits, Magnetism, AC/DC Circuits, Capacitance, Inductance, Transformers, Resonance, Filters, Semiconductors, Transistors, Amplifiers, Integrated Circuits and Digital electronics. In addition to vocational learning outcomes associated with the study of electronics and control systems, graduates of electronics technician programs are also expected to have essential employability skills and meet certain general education learning outcomes.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: For example, quantum mechanics and solid state physics might be relevant to an engineer working on VLSI (the design of integrated circuits), but are largely irrelevant to engineers working with macroscopic electrical systems. Even circuit theory may not be relevant to a person designing telecommunication systems that use off-the-shelf components. Perhaps the most important technical skills for electrical engineers are reflected in university programs, which emphasize strong numerical skills, computer literacy, and the ability to understand the technical language and concepts that relate to electrical engineering.
Document 7 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: It is an industry-led international research program with eight sub-topics including artificial intelligence hardware; analog mixed-signal circuits; computer-aided design and test; environment safety and health; hardware security; logic and memory devices; nanomanufacturing materials and processes; and packaging.
Document 10 ::: Students then choose to specialize in one or more subfields towards the end of the degree. Fundamental to the discipline are the sciences of physics and mathematics as these help to obtain both a qualitative and quantitative description of how such systems will work. Today, most engineering work involves the use of computers and it is commonplace to use computer-aided design and simulation software programs when designing electronic systems.
|
11,333
|
Shedding of dead cells ensures constant renewal of what outer layer of the skin?
|
[
"A. cuticle",
"B. epidermis",
"C. scale",
"D. dermis"
] |
B. epidermis
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 9 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 10 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
|
11,334
|
What causes cumulus clouds to grow upward?
|
[
"A. gas currents",
"B. convection currents",
"C. mantle currents",
"D. moisture currents"
] |
B. convection currents
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: Cloud physics is the study of the physical processes that lead to the formation, growth and precipitation of atmospheric clouds. These aerosols are found in the troposphere, stratosphere, and mesosphere, which collectively make up the greatest part of the homosphere. Clouds consist of microscopic droplets of liquid water (warm clouds), tiny crystals of ice (cold clouds), or both (mixed phase clouds), along with microscopic particles of dust, smoke, or other matter, known as condensation nuclei. Cloud droplets initially form by the condensation of water vapor onto condensation nuclei when the supersaturation of air exceeds a critical value according to Köhler theory.
Document 3 ::: In stratiform anvil regions, aggregation into graupel was the main growth mechanism. The speed of the updraft determines if warm rain processes, riming, or aggregation are the primary mechanism of growth in updraft regions.Heymsfield et al. (2002) also looked at the microphysics of tropical convection, but they limited themselves to the stratiform regions. They observed ice particles of many shapes and sizes.
Document 4 ::: Cloud physics is the study of the physical processes that lead to the formation, growth and precipitation of clouds. Clouds are composed of microscopic droplets of water (warm clouds), tiny crystals of ice, or both (mixed phase clouds). Under suitable conditions, the droplets combine to form precipitation, where they may fall to the earth. The precise mechanics of how a cloud forms and grows is not completely understood, but scientists have developed theories explaining the structure of clouds by studying the microphysics of individual droplets. Advances in radar and satellite technology have also allowed the precise study of clouds on a large scale.
Document 5 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 6 ::: More sophisticated schemes add enhancements, recognizing that only some portions of the box might convect and that entrainment and other processes occur. Weather models that have gridboxes with sides between 5 kilometres (3.1 mi) and 25 kilometres (16 mi) can explicitly represent convective clouds, although they still need to parameterize cloud microphysics. The formation of large-scale (stratus-type) clouds is more physically based, they form when the relative humidity reaches some prescribed value.
Document 7 ::: Baker's research on cloud physics informs climate change models. Her early research examined how atmospheric particles absorb energy and the formation of droplets within cumulus clouds. Her modeling of turbulent mixing within clouds and the connections between cloud thickness and precipitation play a role in modeling of global climate. She has also used a combination of modeling and satellite observations to establish the processes that lead to the formation of lightning.
Document 8 ::: Some of this knowledge was generally correct, like Howard and Dalton's belief that clouds were formations of water particles, that the slow speed of the particles' descension was due to air resistance, and that they evaporated right below the cloud base. Howard, however, held some incorrect beliefs about cloud physics. Primarily Howard gave electricity too large a role in the formation of clouds. The knowledge Howard had about cloud physics partially formed his motives for creating a classification system.
Document 9 ::: Most of the convection in the towers, however, is due to instability (or conditional instability) at cloud height – not to convection below the cloud. The air surrounding the cloud is rapidly entrained into the towers. Cloud physics show that if a cloud does not contain enough humidity, the water vapour contained inside the cloud will only condense at a higher level, where the temperature of the ascending parcel reaches its saturation point.
Document 10 ::: Earth science – the science of the planet Earth, as of 2018 the only identified life-bearing planet. Its studies include the following: The water cycle and the process of transpiration Freshwater Oceanography Weathering and erosion Rocks Agrophysics Soil science Pedogenesis Soil fertility Earth's tectonic structure Geomorphology and geophysics Physical geography Seismology: stress, strain, and earthquakes Characteristics of mountains and volcanoes Characteristics and formation of fossils Atmospheric sciences – the branches of science that study the atmosphere, its processes, the effects other systems have on the atmosphere, and the effects of the atmosphere on these other systems. Atmosphere of Earth Atmospheric pressure and winds Evaporation, condensation, and humidity Fog and clouds Meteorology, weather, climatology, and climate Hydrology, clouds and precipitation Air masses and weather fronts Major storms: thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hurricanes Major climate groups Speleology Cave
|
11,335
|
What term is used to describe a region getting significantly less precipitation than normal for an extended period of time?
|
[
"A. flood",
"B. doldrums",
"C. drought",
"D. dog days"
] |
C. drought
|
Document 1 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: D region (in the atmosphere) Darrieus wind turbine dawn dBZ (meteorology) degree (temperature) deicing dendroclimatology ("extracting past climate information from information in trees") density altitude Denver Convergence Vorticity Zone (DCVZ) deposition (physics) (depression: see) low pressure area derecho (see also List of derecho events) dew dew point (dewpoint, Td) dew point depression disdrometer downwelling drizzle drought dry-bulb temperature dry line (dew point line) dry punch dry season dusk
Document 6 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 7 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 8 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 9 ::: German climatologist Friederike Otto posited that attribution science aims to answer the question, "did climate change play a role" in specific extreme events "within the news time frame – so within two weeks of the event".Attribution studies generally proceed in four steps: (1) measuring the magnitude and frequency of a given event based on observed data, (2) running computer models to compare with and verify observation data, (3) running the same models on a baseline "Earth" with no climate change, and (4) using statistics to analyze the differences between the second and third steps, thereby measuring the direct effect of climate change on the studied event.Heatwaves are the easiest weather events to attribute.Climate change can affect the intensity and frequency of extreme weather differently, for example the 2010 Russia heat wave was made far more likely but not more intense.
Document 10 ::: The teacher can steer the students either through careful design of the questions (this rules out barometer questions), or through guiding the students to the desired choices. In case of the original barometer question, the examiner may explicitly say that the problem has more than one solution, insist on applying the laws of physics, or give them the "ending point" of the solution: "How did I discover that the building was 410 feet in height with only a barometer? "Herson used the Calandra account as an illustration of the difference between academic tests and assessment in education. Tests, even the ones designed for reliability and validity, are useful, but they are not sufficient in real-world education.Sanders interpreted Calandra's story as a conflict between perfection and optimal solutions: "We struggle to determine a 'best' answer, when a simple call to a building superintendent (the resource man) would quickly provide adequate information."
|
11,336
|
What is the name for compounds that contain only carbon and hydrogen?
|
[
"A. carbides",
"B. carbohydrates",
"C. particles",
"D. hydrocarbons"
] |
D. hydrocarbons
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: These compounds are often known as hydrides.Hydrogen forms a vast array of compounds with carbon called the hydrocarbons, and an even vaster array with heteroatoms that, because of their general association with living things, are called organic compounds. The study of their properties is known as organic chemistry and their study in the context of living organisms is known as biochemistry. By some definitions, "organic" compounds are only required to contain carbon.
Document 4 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 5 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 6 ::: Hydrogen forms a vast array of compounds with carbon called the hydrocarbons, and an even vaster array with heteroatoms that, because of their general association with living things, are called organic compounds. The study of their properties is known as organic chemistry and their study in the context of living organisms is known as biochemistry. By some definitions, "organic" compounds are only required to contain carbon. However, most of them also contain hydrogen, and because it is the carbon-hydrogen bond that gives this class of compounds most of its particular chemical characteristics, carbon-hydrogen bonds are required in some definitions of the word "organic" in chemistry. Millions of hydrocarbons are known, and they are usually formed by complicated pathways that seldom involve elemental hydrogen.
Document 7 ::: C1 chemistry is the chemistry of one-carbon molecules. Although many compounds and ions contain only one carbon, stable and abundant C-1 feedstocks are the focus of research. Four compounds are of major industrial importance: methane, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and methanol. Technologies that interconvert these species are often used massively to match supply to demand.
Document 8 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: However, most of them also contain hydrogen, and because it is the carbon-hydrogen bond that gives this class of compounds most of its particular chemical characteristics, carbon-hydrogen bonds are required in some definitions of the word "organic" in chemistry. Millions of hydrocarbons are known, and they are usually formed by complicated pathways that seldom involve elemental hydrogen. Hydrogen is highly soluble in many rare earth and transition metals and is soluble in both nanocrystalline and amorphous metals. Hydrogen solubility in metals is influenced by local distortions or impurities in the crystal lattice. These properties may be useful when hydrogen is purified by passage through hot palladium disks, but the gas's high solubility is a metallurgical problem, contributing to the embrittlement of many metals, complicating the design of pipelines and storage tanks.
|
11,337
|
What human disease is caused by a defective enzyme that is unable to produce melanin, the pigment responsible for the color of skin and hair?
|
[
"A. albinism",
"B. anemia",
"C. hemophilia",
"D. mutations"
] |
A. albinism
|
Document 1 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 2 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
Document 9 ::: In 2013, pgEd created a mobile educational quiz called Map-Ed. Map-Ed invites players to work their way through five questions that address key concepts in genetics and then pin themselves on a world map. Within weeks of its launch, Map-Ed gained over 1,000 pins around the world, spanning across all 7 continents. Translations and new maps linked to questions on topics broadly related to genetics are in development.
Document 10 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
|
11,338
|
Individuals with sickle cell anemia have crescent-shaped what?
|
[
"A. glial cells",
"B. white blood cells",
"C. nerve cells",
"D. red blood cells"
] |
D. red blood cells
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 8 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 9 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11,339
|
Nearly all weather occurs in the lower part of what?
|
[
"A. the mesosphere",
"B. the atmosphere",
"C. the lithosphere",
"D. the ionosphere"
] |
B. the atmosphere
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: Atmospheric science initially developed in the late-19th century as a means to forecast the weather through meteorology, the study of weather. Atmospheric chemistry was developed in the 20th century to measure air pollution and expanded in the 1970s in response to acid rain. Climatology studies the climate and climate change.The troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere, and exosphere are the five layers which make up Earth's atmosphere. 75% of the mass in the atmosphere is located within the troposphere, the lowest layer.
Document 3 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 4 ::: The Mesosphere, Lower Thermosphere and Ionosphere (MLTI) region of the atmosphere to be studied by TIMED is located between 60 and 180 kilometres (37 and 112 mi) above the Earth's surface, where energy from solar radiation is first deposited into the atmosphere. This can have profound effects on Earth's upper atmospheric regions, particularly during the peak of the Sun's 11-year solar cycle when the greatest amounts of its energy are being released. Understanding these interactions is also important for our understanding of various subjects in geophysics, meteorology, aeronomy, and atmospheric science, as solar radiation is one of the primary driving forces behind atmospheric tides. Changes in the MLT can also affect modern satellite and radio telecommunications.
Document 5 ::: Earth science – the science of the planet Earth, as of 2018 the only identified life-bearing planet. Its studies include the following: The water cycle and the process of transpiration Freshwater Oceanography Weathering and erosion Rocks Agrophysics Soil science Pedogenesis Soil fertility Earth's tectonic structure Geomorphology and geophysics Physical geography Seismology: stress, strain, and earthquakes Characteristics of mountains and volcanoes Characteristics and formation of fossils Atmospheric sciences – the branches of science that study the atmosphere, its processes, the effects other systems have on the atmosphere, and the effects of the atmosphere on these other systems. Atmosphere of Earth Atmospheric pressure and winds Evaporation, condensation, and humidity Fog and clouds Meteorology, weather, climatology, and climate Hydrology, clouds and precipitation Air masses and weather fronts Major storms: thunderstorms, tornadoes, and hurricanes Major climate groups Speleology Cave
Document 6 ::: Meteorological phenomena are described and quantified by the variables of Earth's atmosphere: temperature, air pressure, water vapour, mass flow, and the variations and interactions of these variables, and how they change over time. Different spatial scales are used to describe and predict weather on local, regional, and global levels. Meteorology, climatology, atmospheric physics, and atmospheric chemistry are sub-disciplines of the atmospheric sciences.
Document 7 ::: Several layers can be distinguished in the atmosphere, based on characteristics such as temperature and composition. The study of Earth's atmosphere and its processes is called atmospheric science (aerology), and includes multiple subfields, such as climatology and atmospheric physics. Early pioneers in the field include Léon Teisserenc de Bort and Richard Assmann. The study of historic atmosphere is called paleoclimatology.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 10 ::: P1 Astronomy P2 Geodesy P3 Geophysics P4 Meteorology P5 Geology P6 Mineralogy P7 Oceanography P9 Physiography
|
11,340
|
For skeletal development, the most common template is what?
|
[
"A. cartilage",
"B. calcium",
"C. collagen",
"D. membrane"
] |
A. cartilage
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: The study of biomaterials is called biomaterials science. It has experienced steady and strong growth over its history, with many companies investing large amounts of money into the development of new products. Biomaterials science encompasses elements of medicine, biology, chemistry, tissue engineering and materials science.
|
11,341
|
The body's second line of defense against pathogens includes which response?
|
[
"A. reaction",
"B. anxiety",
"C. inflammatory",
"D. blood"
] |
C. inflammatory
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: ": 46 She also contended that the two studies that had failed to replicate the Uhlmann paper's results were flawed for two reasons: because they looked at cells of children with autism rather than in their GI tract, and because they did not test children with autism with gastrointestinal dysfunction. : 629A Immunologist Vera Byers testified that Michelle Cedillo had a dysregulated immune system, which allowed the measles virus to persist in her system, and that her malfunctioning immune system was in part a result of the virus itself. : 32 She also stated that this dysregulation was caused by "a combination of genetics and the measles virus vaccination and the thimerosal-containing vaccines that she had received.
Document 10 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
|
11,342
|
Hiv is a retrovirus, which means it reverse transcribes its rna genome into what?
|
[
"A. atp",
"B. dna",
"C. amino acid chains",
"D. ribosomes"
] |
B. dna
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Replication of DNA and transcription from DNA to mRNA occurs in the nucleus while translation from RNA to proteins occurs in the ribosome. The genetic code is made of four base pairs: adenine, cytosine, uracil, and guanine and is redundant meaning multiple combinations of these base pairs (which are read in triplicate) produce the same amino acid. Proteomics and genomics are fields in biology that come out of the study of molecular genetics and the Central Dogma.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
Document 5 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 6 ::: Endogenous retroviruses have also received special attention in the research of immunology-related pathologies, such as autoimmune diseases like multiple sclerosis, although endogenous retroviruses have not yet been proven to play any causal role in this class of disease.While transcription was classically thought to occur only from DNA to RNA, reverse transcriptase transcribes RNA into DNA. The term "retro" in retrovirus refers to this reversal (making DNA from RNA) of the usual direction of transcription. It still obeys the central dogma of molecular biology, which states that information can be transferred from nucleic acid to nucleic acid but cannot be transferred back from protein to either protein or nucleic acid.
Document 7 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 8 ::: This dogma has since been shown to have exceptions, such as reverse transcription in retroviruses. The modern study of genetics at the level of DNA is known as molecular genetics.
Document 9 ::: Viruses are capsid-encoding organisms composed of proteins and nucleic acids that can self-assemble after replication in a host cell using the host's replication machinery. There is a disagreement in science about whether viruses are living due to their lack of ribosomes. Comprehending the viral genome is important not only for studies in genetics but also for understanding their pathogenic properties.Many types of virus are capable of genetic recombination. When two or more individual viruses of the same type infect a cell, their genomes may recombine with each other to produce recombinant virus progeny.
Document 10 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
|
11,343
|
Plants can tell the time of day and time of year by sensing and using various wavelengths of what
|
[
"A. lunar cycles",
"B. moisture",
"C. precipitation",
"D. sunlight"
] |
D. sunlight
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: Many plants exhibit a strong circadian rhythm (see also Chronobiology), and a few have been observed to open at quite a regular time, but the accuracy of such a clock is diminished because flowering time is affected by weather and seasonal effects. The flowering times recorded by Linnaeus are also subject to differences in daylight due to latitude: his measurements are based on flowering times in Uppsala, where he taught and had received his university education. The plants suggested for use by Linnaeus are given in the table below, ordered by recorded opening time; "-" signifies that data are missing.
Document 5 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 6 ::: Whatever name is applied, it deals with the ways in which plants respond to their environment and so overlaps with the field of ecology. Environmental physiologists examine plant response to physical factors such as radiation (including light and ultraviolet radiation), temperature, fire, and wind.
Document 7 ::: These processes continue even in artificial environments in which seasonal cues have been removed by scientists. The term circannual is Latin, circa meaning approximately and annual relating to one year. Chronobiology is the field of biology pertaining to periodic rhythms that occur in living organisms in response to external stimuli such as photoperiod.
Document 8 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: Plant perception is the ability of plants to sense and respond to the environment by adjusting their morphology and physiology. Botanical research has revealed that plants are capable of reacting to a broad range of stimuli, including chemicals, gravity, light, moisture, infections, temperature, oxygen and carbon dioxide concentrations, parasite infestation, disease, physical disruption, sound, and touch. The scientific study of plant perception is informed by numerous disciplines, such as plant physiology, ecology, and molecular biology.
|
11,344
|
In eukaryotes, the major mechanism for shuffling genes is what?
|
[
"A. asexual reproduction",
"B. suggesting reproduction",
"C. subject reproduction",
"D. sexual reproduction"
] |
D. sexual reproduction
|
Document 1 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The biology of T. vaginalis has implications for understanding the origin of sexual reproduction in eukaryotes. T. vaginalis is not known to undergo meiosis, a key stage of the eukaryotic sexual cycle. However, when Malik et al. examined T. vaginalis for the presence of 29 genes known to function in meiosis, they found 27 such genes, including eight of nine genes that are specific to meiosis in model organisms.
Document 4 ::: : 110 For example, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French naturalist who said the changes an organism makes as it adapts to its environment can be passed down to subsequent generations through gene expression (which genes get turned off). This has been taken up by the new field of epigenetics. : 160–167: 111 The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, one of the first geneticists.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 7 ::: Many eukaryotes (including animals and plants) exhibit asexual reproduction, which may be facultative or obligate in the life cycle, with sexual reproduction occurring more or less frequently.Individual organisms participating in a biological life cycle ordinarily age and die, while cells from these organisms that connect successive life cycle generations (germ line cells and their descendants) are potentially immortal. The basis for this difference is a fundamental problem in biology. The Russian biologist and historian Zhores A. Medvedev considered that the accuracy of genome replicative and other synthetic systems alone cannot explain the immortality of germ lines.
Document 8 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 9 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
Document 10 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
|
11,345
|
The vas deferens and ejaculatory ducts transport sperm from the epididymes to the urethra in what system?
|
[
"A. cardiovascular system",
"B. digestive system",
"C. male reproductive system",
"D. famous reproductive system"
] |
C. male reproductive system
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 5 ::: Polyspermy is very rare in human reproduction. The decline in the numbers of sperm that swim to the oviduct is one of two ways that prevents polyspermy in humans. The other mechanism is the blocking of sperm in the fertilized egg. According to Developmental Biology Interactive, if an egg becomes fertilized by multiple sperm, the embryo will then gain various paternal centrioles.
Document 6 ::: Systems Biology in Reproductive Medicine is a peer-reviewed medical journal that covers the use of systems approaches including genomic, cellular, proteomic, metabolomic, bioinformatic, molecular, and biochemical, to address fundamental questions in reproductive biology, reproductive medicine, and translational research. The journal publishes research involving human and animal gametes, stem cells, developmental biology, toxicology, and clinical care in reproductive medicine.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 10 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
|
11,346
|
What do nearly all animals have in common with regards to digestion?
|
[
"A. complete digestion of food",
"B. external digestion of food",
"C. internal digestion of food",
"D. problematic digestion of food"
] |
C. internal digestion of food
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: Animal welfare Digestive physiology Environmental impacts Feed manufacture and formulation Immunology and microbiology Molecular and quantitative genetics Nutrition Vaccines and diagnostics
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Professional education in animal science prepares students for careers in areas such as animal breeding, food and fiber production, nutrition, animal agribusiness, animal behavior, and welfare. Courses in a typical Animal Science program may include genetics, microbiology, animal behavior, nutrition, physiology, and reproduction. Courses in support areas, such as genetics, soils, agricultural economics and marketing, legal aspects, and the environment also are offered.
Document 9 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 10 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
|
11,347
|
What are the secretions released by the endocrine glands called?
|
[
"A. fluids",
"B. enzymes",
"C. hormones",
"D. acids"
] |
C. hormones
|
Document 1 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Some graduate programs in the United States recommend taking this exam, while others require this exam score as a part of the application to their graduate programs. ETS sends a bulletin with a sample practice test to each candidate after registration for the exam. There are 180 questions within the biochemistry subject test.
Document 9 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 10 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
|
11,348
|
What are chromosomes in the same pair called?
|
[
"A. homogeneous chromosomes",
"B. homologous chromosomes",
"C. regulated chromosomes",
"D. reversible chromosomes"
] |
B. homologous chromosomes
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 5 ::: Most animals and some plants have paired chromosomes, and are described as diploid. They have two versions of each chromosome, one contributed by the mother's ovum, and the other by the father's sperm, known as gametes, described as haploid, and created through meiosis. These gametes then fuse during fertilization during sexual reproduction, into a new single cell zygote, which divides multiple times, resulting in a new organism with the same number of pairs of chromosomes in each (non-gamete) cell as its parents. In mammalian genetics, autosomal dominant disorders have pedigrees that demonstrate a vertical pattern of inheritance.
Document 6 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
Document 7 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: Each gene maps to the same chromosome in every cell. Linkage is determined by the presence of two or more loci on the same chromosome. The entire chromosomal set of a species is known as a karyotype. A seemingly logical consequence of descent from common ancestors is that more closely related species should have more chromosomes in common. However, it is now widely thought that species may have phenetically similar karyotypes due to genomic conservation. Therefore, in comparative cytogenetics, phylogenetic relationships should be determined on the basis of the polarity of chromosomal differences (derived traits).
|
11,349
|
What do you call plastids that contain the green pigment chlorophyll?
|
[
"A. Leucoplasts",
"B. Chromoplasts",
"C. Gerontoplasts",
"D. chloroplasts"
] |
D. chloroplasts
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: The chloroplasts of plants have a number of biochemical, structural and genetic similarities to cyanobacteria, (commonly but incorrectly known as "blue-green algae") and are thought to be derived from an ancient endosymbiotic relationship between an ancestral eukaryotic cell and a cyanobacterial resident.The algae are a polyphyletic group and are placed in various divisions, some more closely related to plants than others. There are many differences between them in features such as cell wall composition, biochemistry, pigmentation, chloroplast structure and nutrient reserves. The algal division Charophyta, sister to the green algal division Chlorophyta, is considered to contain the ancestor of true plants.
Document 9 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 10 ::: It was only in the 1960s that chromatophores were well enough understood to enable them to be classified based on their appearance. This classification system persists to this day, even though the biochemistry of the pigments may be more useful to a scientific understanding of how the cells function.Colour-producing molecules fall into two distinct classes: biochromes and structural colours or "schemochromes". The biochromes include true pigments, such as carotenoids and pteridines.
|
11,350
|
What important and unusual physical property (for birds) do ostriches and penguins share?
|
[
"A. webbed feet",
"B. flightlessness",
"C. bonelessness",
"D. waterproofness"
] |
B. flightlessness
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11,351
|
What are changes in membrane potential that vary continuously with the strength of a stimulus are known as?
|
[
"A. graded potentials",
"B. kinetic energy",
"C. reverse potentials",
"D. variable potentials"
] |
A. graded potentials
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 5 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 6 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 7 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,352
|
The moon has a crust, mantle, and a?
|
[
"A. mountain range",
"B. ice cap",
"C. magnetic field",
"D. core"
] |
D. core
|
Document 1 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 4 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 7 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 10 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
|
11,353
|
What type of coal is formed at lower temperatures?
|
[
"A. calcareous",
"B. clean",
"C. limestones",
"D. bituminous"
] |
D. bituminous
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: A wide variety of coals are amenable to the UCG process and coal grades from lignite through to bituminous may be successfully gasified. A great many factors are taken into account in selecting appropriate locations for UCG, including surface conditions, hydrogeology, lithology, coal quantity, and quality. According to Andrew Beath of CSIRO Exploration & Mining other important criteria include: Depth of 100–600 metres (330–1,970 ft) Thickness more than 5 metres (16 ft) Ash content less than 60% Minimal discontinuities Isolation from valued aquifers.According to Peter Sallans of Liberty Resources Limited, the key criteria are: Depth of 100–1,400 metres (330–4,590 ft) Thickness more than 3 metres (9.8 ft) Ash content less than 60% Minimal discontinuities Isolation from valued aquifers.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 6 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 7 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 8 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
|
11,354
|
What can sodium ions not pass through?
|
[
"A. benthic lipid bilayer",
"B. nonpolar lipid bilayer",
"C. Lipid Control",
"D. narrowness lipid bilayer"
] |
B. nonpolar lipid bilayer
|
Document 1 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 2 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 3 ::: The primary role of the lipid bilayer in biology is to separate aqueous compartments from their surroundings. Without some form of barrier delineating “self” from “non-self”, it is difficult to even define the concept of an organism or of life. This barrier takes the form of a lipid bilayer in all known life forms except for a few species of archaea that utilize a specially adapted lipid monolayer.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 8 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: Permeability depends on solubility, charge, or chemistry, as well as solute size. Water molecules travel through the plasma membrane, tonoplast membrane (vacuole) or organelle membranes by diffusing across the phospholipid bilayer via aquaporins (small transmembrane proteins similar to those responsible for facilitated diffusion and ion channels). Osmosis provides the primary means by which water is transported into and out of cells. The turgor pressure of a cell is largely maintained by osmosis across the cell membrane between the cell interior and its relatively hypotonic environment.
|
11,355
|
What happens when the kidneys cannot remove wastes from the blood?
|
[
"A. intestinal failure",
"B. choanocyte failure",
"C. kidney failure",
"D. tissue failure"
] |
C. kidney failure
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 7 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 8 ::: (b) The size of the merged department of Neurosciences, Physiology and Pharmacology means less interaction between staff, and less collegiate spirit. (c) The changes created two extra levels of administration, so that now five levels existed between academics and the provost. Staff were told at the time that the new organisation would be rolled out to other Faculties across UCL, though this has not happened.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11,356
|
What is another name for nearsightedness?
|
[
"A. myopia",
"B. presbyopia",
"C. astigmatism",
"D. hyperopia"
] |
A. myopia
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 3 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 7 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
|
11,357
|
What is the innermost layer of the sun called?
|
[
"A. Convection Zone",
"B. Chromosphere",
"C. the core",
"D. Photosphere"
] |
C. the core
|
Document 1 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 2 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 3 ::: An elementary physics professor was teaching about how close you could get to the sun. He laid the foundation of heat and distance, and said that is as close as you can get FAPP. A boy asked, "what does that mean?"
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The solar transition region is a region of the Sun's atmosphere between the upper chromosphere and corona. It is important because it is the site of several unrelated but important transitions in the physics of the solar atmosphere: Below, gravity tends to dominate the shape of most features, so that the Sun may often be described in terms of layers and horizontal features (like sunspots); above, dynamic forces dominate the shape of most features, so that the transition region itself is not a well-defined layer at a particular altitude. Below, most of the helium is not fully ionized, so that it radiates energy very effectively; above, it becomes fully ionized. This has a profound effect on the equilibrium temperature (see below).
Document 7 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: In The Sun, Golub and Pasachoff explore the composition, nature, and significance of the Sun. They provide an account of the history of solar astronomy and discuss the advancements made by scientists. The book covers various aspects of the Sun, including sunspots, their magnetic properties, and their connection to solar activity. The authors also delve into the composition of the Sun's interior, discussing seismic waves and ongoing nuclear fusion processes.
Document 10 ::: The CI abundance is more properly linked to the abundances in the solar photosphere. Small differences exist between the solar interior, photosphere, and corona/solar wind. Heavy elements may settle to the interiors of stars (for the Sun, this effect appears low); the corona and thus the solar wind are affected by plasma physics and high-energy mechanisms and are imperfect samples of the Sun.
|
11,358
|
What device is used to study charge?
|
[
"A. nannostomus",
"B. microscope",
"C. electroscope",
"D. microtome"
] |
C. electroscope
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: Researchers are asking questions such as "why do we have laboratory work in the curriculum? What is distinctive about laboratory work that cannot be met elsewhere in the curriculum?" Researchers are asking for evidence that the investment of space, time and resources in chemistry laboratories provides value to student learning.
Document 10 ::: The pith-ball electroscope and the gold-leaf electroscope are two classical types of electroscope that are still used in physics education to demonstrate the principles of electrostatics. A type of electroscope is also used in the quartz fiber radiation dosimeter. Electroscopes were used by the Austrian scientist Victor Hess in the discovery of cosmic rays.
|
11,359
|
What term is used to describe large numbers of species that go extinct in a short amount of time?
|
[
"A. mass extinction",
"B. organic extinction",
"C. species extinction",
"D. formation extinction"
] |
A. mass extinction
|
Document 1 ::: Global assessments of biodiversity indicate that the current epoch, the Holocene (or Anthropocene) is a sixth mass extinction. Species loss is accelerating at 100–1000 times faster than average background rates in the fossil record. The field of conservation biology involves ecologists that are researching, confronting, and searching for solutions to sustain the planet's ecosystems for future generations.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: For example, a multiple-choice exam designed to assess knowledge of key concepts in natural selection does not meet a number of standards of quality control. One problem with the exam is that the two members of each of several pairs of parallel items, with each pair designed to measure exactly one key concept in natural selection, sometimes have very different levels of difficulty. Another problem is that the multiple-choice exam overestimates knowledge of natural selection as reflected in student performance on a diagnostic essay exam and a diagnostic oral exam, two instruments with reasonably good construct validity. Although scoring concept inventories in the form of essay or oral exams is labor-intensive, costly, and difficult to implement with large numbers of students, such exams can offer a more realistic appraisal of the actual levels of students' conceptual mastery as well as their misconceptions. Recently, however, computer technology has been developed that can score essay responses on concept inventories in biology and other domains, promising to facilitate the scoring of concept inventories organized as (transcribed) oral exams as well as essays.
Document 4 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 5 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 6 ::: By contrast, conservation biology uses the extinction vortex model to classify extinctions by cause. When concerns about human extinction have been raised, for example in Sir Martin Rees' 2003 book Our Final Hour, those concerns lie with the effects of climate change or technological disaster.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: There is a shortage of specialists who can identify the very biodiversity whose preservation has become a global concern. In commenting on this problem in palaeontology in 1993, Roger Kaesler recognized: "... we are running out of systematic palaeontologists who have anything approaching synoptic knowledge of a major group of organisms ... Palaeontologists of the next century are unlikely to have the luxury of dealing at length with taxonomic problems ... Palaeontology will have to sustain its level of excitement without the aid of systematists, who have contributed so much to its success. "This expertise deficiency cuts as deeply into those commercial industries that rely on accurate identifications (e.g., agriculture, biostratigraphy) as it does into a wide range of pure and applied research programmes (e.g., conservation, biological oceanography, climatology, ecology).
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,360
|
What is the tiny male gametophyte enclosed in a tough capsule?
|
[
"A. Cell Capsule",
"B. calcium",
"C. nitrogen",
"D. pollen"
] |
D. pollen
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 9 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 10 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
|
11,361
|
When zinc reacts with hydrochloric acid, the reaction bubbles vigorously as which type of gas is produced?
|
[
"A. hydrogren",
"B. nitrogen",
"C. oxygen",
"D. chlorine"
] |
A. hydrogren
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Extremely pure zinc reacts only slowly at room temperature with acids. Strong acids, such as hydrochloric or sulfuric acid, can remove the passivating layer and the subsequent reaction with the acid releases hydrogen gas.The chemistry of zinc is dominated by the +2 oxidation state. When compounds in this oxidation state are formed, the outer shell s electrons are lost, yielding a bare zinc ion with the electronic configuration 3d10.
Document 3 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 6 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 7 ::: After the on-line questions, students will take a test about what they have learned while solving the on-line questions. First grade students in high school take this test. The questions are based on basic chemistry. The test can determine how much the students understand basic chemistry.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: Researchers are asking questions such as "why do we have laboratory work in the curriculum? What is distinctive about laboratory work that cannot be met elsewhere in the curriculum?" Researchers are asking for evidence that the investment of space, time and resources in chemistry laboratories provides value to student learning.
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,362
|
Structural adaptations in flying animals often contribute to reduced what?
|
[
"A. eyesight",
"B. respiration",
"C. blood flow",
"D. body mass"
] |
D. body mass
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 10 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
|
11,363
|
What diagram is used to reflect evolutionary relationships among organisms or groups of organisms?
|
[
"A. relationships tree",
"B. phylogenetic tree",
"C. conceptual tree",
"D. biodiversity tree"
] |
B. phylogenetic tree
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 4 ::: Caminalcules are commonly used in secondary school and undergraduate university curriculums as a tool for teaching principles of phylogeny and evolution. They can, for example, be used to illustrate the concepts of parsimony and convergent evolution.Students are typically asked to construct a phylogenetic tree based on the morphological characteristics of the Caminalcules and taking into account evolutionary principles. In an article in American Biology Teacher, Robert P. Gendron published instructions for a lesson plan in which students are first asked to construct a potential tree based solely on the living Caminalcules, followed by a definitive tree that includes the fossil species. Many secondary and tertiary educational institutions around the world have adopted lesson plans that follow this sequence.
Document 5 ::: In recent years, multiple websites that maintain lists of conceptual questions have been created by instructors for various disciplines. Some books on physics provide many examples of conceptual questions as well.Multiple conceptual questions can be assembled into a concept inventory to test the working knowledge of students at the beginning of a course or to track the improvement in conceptual understanding throughout the course. == References ==
Document 6 ::: The result of these analyses is a phylogeny (also known as a phylogenetic tree) – a diagrammatic hypothesis about the history of the evolutionary relationships of a group of organisms. Phylogenetic analyses have become central to understanding biodiversity, evolution, ecological genetics and genomes.
Document 7 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 8 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 9 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 10 ::: Finally, "science", "art" and "craft", as leaves, are ancestors of no other node. Tree structures can depict all kinds of taxonomic knowledge, such as family trees, the biological evolutionary tree, the evolutionary tree of a language family, the grammatical structure of a language (a key example being S → NP VP, meaning a sentence is a noun phrase and a verb phrase, with each in turn having other components which have other components), the way web pages are logically ordered in a web site, mathematical trees of integer sets, et cetera. The Oxford English Dictionary records use of both the terms "tree structure" and "tree-diagram" from 1965 in Noam Chomsky's Aspects of the Theory of Syntax.In a tree structure there is one and only one path from any point to any other point. Computer science uses tree structures extensively (see Tree (data structure) and telecommunications.) For a formal definition see set theory, and for a generalization in which children are not necessarily successors, see prefix order.
|
11,364
|
What is the energy called that is stored in matter?
|
[
"A. possible",
"B. mechanical",
"C. potential",
"D. stored energy"
] |
C. potential
|
Document 1 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 2 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 7 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 8 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 9 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 10 ::: Task 1: "Answer retrieval" matching old post answers to newly posed questions, and Task 2: "Formula retrieval" matching old post formulae to new questions. Starting with the domain of mathematics, which involves formula language, the goal is to later extend the task to other domains (e.g., STEM disciplines, such as chemistry, biology, etc.), which employ other types of special notation (e.g., chemical formulae).The inverse of mathematical question answering—mathematical question generation—has also been researched. The PhysWikiQuiz physics question generation and test engine retrieves mathematical formulae from Wikidata together with semantic information about their constituting identifiers (names and values of variables).
|
11,365
|
What is the term for traits that show wide variation, such as height, skin color, and eye color?
|
[
"A. recessive traits",
"B. polygenic traits",
"C. inherited traits",
"D. maladaptive traits"
] |
B. polygenic traits
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: It is important to understand the terms "heterozygous", "homozygous", "double heterozygote" (or homozygote), "dominant allele" and "recessive allele" when using the Punnett square method. For multiple traits, using the "forked-line method" is typically much easier than the Punnett square. Phenotypes may be predicted with at least better-than-chance accuracy using a Punnett square, but the phenotype that may appear in the presence of a given genotype can in some instances be influenced by many other factors, as when polygenic inheritance and/or epigenetics are at work.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: Genetic variation in humans may mean any variance in phenotype which results from heritable allele expression, mutations, and epigenetic changes. While human phenotypes may seem diverse, individuals actually differ by only 1 in every 1,000 base pairs and is primarily the result of inherited genetic differences. Pure consideration of alleles is often referred to as Mendelian Genetics, or more properly Classical Genetics, and involves the assessment of whether a given trait is dominant or recessive and thus, at what rates it will be inherited. The color of one's eyes was long believed to occur with a pattern of brown-eye dominance, with blue eyes being a recessive characteristic resulting from a past mutation.
Document 5 ::: Genetics influence individuals as they select their environment.
Document 6 ::: quantitative genetics A branch of population genetics which studies phenotypes that vary continuously (such as height or mass) as opposed to those that fall into discretely identifiable categories (such as eye color or the presence or absence of a particular trait). Quantitative genetics employs statistical methods and concepts to link continuously distributed phenotypic values to specific genotypes and gene products. quantitative PCR (qPCR) Also real-time PCR (rtPCR). quantitative trait Also complex trait. quantitative trait locus (QTL)
Document 7 ::: This is because of the large number of genes involved; this makes the trait very variable and people are of many different heights. Despite a common misconception, the green/blue eye traits are also inherited in this complex inheritance model. Inheritance can also be complicated when the trait depends on the interaction between genetics and environment. For example, malnutrition does not change traits like eye color, but can stunt growth.
Document 8 ::: This allows a test of the genetic overlap between different phenotypes: for instance hair color and eye color. Environment and genetics may also interact, and heritability analyses can test for and examine these interactions (GxE models). A prerequisite for heritability analyses is that there is some population variation to account for.
Document 9 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 10 ::: Compared to strictly Mendelian traits, complex traits are far more common, and because they can be hugely polygenic, they are studied using statistical techniques such as quantitative genetics and quantitative trait loci (QTL) mapping rather than classical genetics methods. Examples of complex traits include height, circadian rhythms, enzyme kinetics, and many diseases including diabetes and Parkinson's disease. One major goal of genetic research today is to better understand the molecular mechanisms through which genetic variants act to influence complex traits.
|
11,366
|
Which system in the human body consists of the heart, a network of blood vessels, and blood?
|
[
"A. circulatory system",
"B. nervous system",
"C. cardiovascular system",
"D. cardiac system"
] |
C. cardiovascular system
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: Humans have the overall body plan of a mammal. Humans have a head, neck, trunk (which includes the thorax and abdomen), two arms and hands, and two legs and feet. Generally, students of certain biological sciences, paramedics, prosthetists and orthotists, physiotherapists, occupational therapists, nurses, podiatrists, and medical students learn gross anatomy and microscopic anatomy from anatomical models, skeletons, textbooks, diagrams, photographs, lectures and tutorials and in addition, medical students generally also learn gross anatomy through practical experience of dissection and inspection of cadavers. The study of microscopic anatomy (or histology) can be aided by practical experience examining histological preparations (or slides) under a microscope.Human anatomy, physiology and biochemistry are complementary basic medical sciences, which are generally taught to medical students in their first year at medical school.
Document 5 ::: Questions in systems neuroscience include how neural circuits are formed and used anatomically and physiologically to produce functions such as reflexes, multisensory integration, motor coordination, circadian rhythms, emotional responses, learning, and memory. In other words, they address how these neural circuits function in large-scale brain networks, and the mechanisms through which behaviors are generated. For example, systems level analysis addresses questions concerning specific sensory and motor modalities: how does vision work? How do songbirds learn new songs and bats localize with ultrasound?
Document 6 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 7 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 8 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
|
11,367
|
Volume is another way of measuring what?
|
[
"A. weight",
"B. material",
"C. height",
"D. length"
] |
B. material
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 8 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 9 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 10 ::: In recent years, multiple websites that maintain lists of conceptual questions have been created by instructors for various disciplines. Some books on physics provide many examples of conceptual questions as well.Multiple conceptual questions can be assembled into a concept inventory to test the working knowledge of students at the beginning of a course or to track the improvement in conceptual understanding throughout the course. == References ==
|
11,368
|
What do you call a science that aims to find solutions to practical problems?
|
[
"A. applied science",
"B. applied experience",
"C. experimental science",
"D. evolved science"
] |
A. applied science
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 7 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 8 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 9 ::: A-STEM (arts, science, technology, engineering, and mathematics); more focus and based on humanism and arts. eSTEM (environmental STEM) GEMS (girls in engineering, math, and science); used for programs to encourage women to enter these fields. MINT (mathematics, informatics, natural sciences, and technology) SHTEAM (science, humanities, technology, engineering, arts, and mathematics) SMET (science, mathematics, engineering, and technology); previous name STEAM (science, technology, engineering, arts, and mathematics)STEAM (science, technology, engineering, agriculture, and mathematics); add agriculture STEAM (science, technology, engineering, and applied mathematics); more focus on applied mathematics STEEM (science, technology, engineering, economics, and mathematics); adds economics as a field STEMIE (science, technology, engineering, mathematics, invention and entrepreneurship); adds Inventing and Entrepreneurship as means to apply STEM to real world problem solving and markets. STEMM (science, technology, engineering, mathematics, and medicine) STM (scientific, technical, and mathematics or science, technology, and medicine) STREAM (science, technology, robotics, engineering, arts, and mathematics); adds robotics and arts as fields
Document 10 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
|
11,369
|
What term describes weathering that occurs as water expands when it freezes, wedging apart rock?
|
[
"A. erosion",
"B. cleavage",
"C. mechanical weathering",
"D. chemical weathering"
] |
C. mechanical weathering
|
Document 1 ::: Determine what geologic processes have shaped the local terrain and influenced the chemistry. Such processes could include water or wind erosion, sedimentation, hydrothermal mechanisms, volcanism, and cratering.
Document 2 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 5 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 6 ::: Geologists use a number of fields, laboratory, and numerical modeling methods to decipher Earth history and to understand the processes that occur on and inside the Earth. In typical geological investigations, geologists use primary information related to petrology (the study of rocks), stratigraphy (the study of sedimentary layers), and structural geology (the study of positions of rock units and their deformation). In many cases, geologists also study modern soils, rivers, landscapes, and glaciers; investigate past and current life and biogeochemical pathways, and use geophysical methods to investigate the subsurface. Sub-specialities of geology may distinguish endogenous and exogenous geology.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 9 ::: In contrast, "a decrease in the amount of rock fragments as depth increases, especially over saprolite, indicates that the soil materials probably has been transported down slope". Identification of residuum is relevant in soil science and geology because accurate identification conveys direct and implicit info about soil itself, the environment in which it formed, and its current environment. Soils provide a records of prevailing and past environments climates and human activities and much more.In limestone terrains the boundary between bedrock and residuum is commonly very sharp, but may be highly irregular, defining pinnacles and even isolated blocks of fresh bedrock surrounded by reddish residual silts and clays derived from its decomposition. Resistant materials such as chert, silicified fossils, or beds of sandstone remain and may concentrate on the surface as float. == References ==
Document 10 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
|
11,370
|
How many pairs of chromosomes are found in human cells?
|
[
"A. 25",
"B. 23",
"C. 13",
"D. 24"
] |
B. 23
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 5 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 6 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 7 ::: This section tests the ability to apply scientific knowledge typically covered in school Science and Mathematics by the age of 16 (for example, GCSE in the UK and IGCSE internationally). It is made up of 27 questions, with 30 minutes to complete. The scope of scientific knowledge include that of Mathematics, Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
|
11,371
|
An aqueous solution is a homogeneous mixture in which the most abundant component is what?
|
[
"A. water",
"B. blood",
"C. air",
"D. oxygen"
] |
A. water
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: In chemistry, a solution is a special type of homogeneous mixture composed of two or more substances. In such a mixture, a solute is a substance dissolved in another substance, known as a solvent. If the attractive forces between the solvent and solute particles are greater than the attractive forces holding the solute particles together, the solvent particles pull the solute particles apart and surround them. These surrounded solute particles then move away from the solid solute and out into the solution.
Document 8 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 9 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 10 ::: The annual AP Chemistry examination, which is typically administered in May, is divided into two major sections (multiple-choice questions and free response essays).
|
11,372
|
What happens to light when it reflects from a rough surface?
|
[
"A. becomes isolated",
"B. reflects",
"C. becomes concentrated",
"D. gets diffused"
] |
D. gets diffused
|
Document 1 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 2 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 3 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 4 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 5 ::: The Fresnel equations describe the physics at the optical boundary. Reflection may occur as specular, or mirror-like, reflection and diffuse reflection. Specular reflection reflects all light which arrives from a given direction at the same angle, whereas diffuse reflection reflects light in a broad range of directions.
Document 6 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 7 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 8 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 9 ::: Among the most ingenious experiments he conducted was to determine the reflectance of the interior surface of a pane of glass. 3. Luminous radiative transfer between surfaces Assuming diffuse surfaces and the three laws of photometry, Lambert used Calculus to find the transfer of light between surfaces of various sizes, shapes, and orientations.
Document 10 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
|
11,373
|
Isothermal expansion is a process occurring without a change in?
|
[
"A. temperature",
"B. variation",
"C. weight",
"D. precipitation"
] |
A. temperature
|
Document 1 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 7 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 8 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 9 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 10 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
|
11,374
|
Nearly all fish reproduce sexually and have what?
|
[
"A. separate sexes",
"B. single sexes",
"C. flexible sexes",
"D. modified sexes"
] |
A. separate sexes
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: Such analysis of biological systems could also signal whether the fetus is hermaphrodite, which includes total or partial of both male and female reproduction organs. Some species such as various plants and fish do not have a fixed sex, and instead go through life cycles and change sex based on genetic cues during corresponding life stages of their type. This could be due to environmental factors such as seasons and temperature. In some gonochoric species, a few individuals may have sex characteristics of both sexes, a condition called intersex.While diversity in sex determination systems is common throughout different biological systems, the systems beyond XY/XX/XO in mammals are often left to more advanced courses for those whose studies specialize in genetics of other organisms.
Document 8 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 9 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 10 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
|
11,375
|
Cilia and flagella are generally associated with what function in organisms, whether the function is internal or external?
|
[
"A. reproduction",
"B. digestion",
"C. sight",
"D. movement"
] |
D. movement
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Chlamydomonas is used as a model organism for research on fundamental questions in cell and molecular biology such as: How do cells move? How do cells respond to light? How do cells recognize one another? How do cells generate regular, repeatable flagellar waveforms?
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: "Is evolution compatible with Christianity or other religious systems?" "Are there laws of biology like the laws of physics? "Ideas drawn from philosophical ontology and logic are being used by biologists in the domain of bioinformatics.
Document 7 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: Methods of importance to cellular biology, such as fluorescence probes (e.g., FRAP, FRET and GFP) and imaging, will be covered as appropriate within the context of the content below. A. Cellular Compartments of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes: Organization, Dynamics and Functions Cellular membrane systems (e.g., structure and transport across membrane) Nucleus (e.g., envelope and matrix) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (e.g., biogenesis and evolution) B. Cell Surface and Communication Extracellular matrix (including cell walls) Cell adhesion and junctions Signal transduction Receptor function Excitable membrane systems C. Cytoskeleton, Motility and Shape Regulation of assembly and disassembly of filament systems Motor function, regulation and diversity D. Protein, Processing, Targeting and Turnover Translocation across membranes Posttranslational modification Intracellular trafficking Secretion and endocytosis Protein turnover (e.g., proteosomes, lysosomes, damaged protein response) E. Cell Division, Differentiation and Development Cell cycle, mitosis and cytokinesis Meiosis and gametogenesis Fertilization and early embryonic development (including positional information, homeotic genes, tissue-specific expression, nuclear and cytoplasmic interactions, growth factors and induction, environment, stem cells and polarity)
|
11,376
|
Do particles collide more in two reactants when they are both in fluid forms or solid forms?
|
[
"A. solid",
"B. neither",
"C. plasma",
"D. fluid"
] |
D. fluid
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The molecules with an energy greater than this barrier have enough energy to react. For a successful collision to take place, the collision geometry must be right, meaning the reactant molecules must face the right way so the activated complex can be formed. A chemical reaction takes place only when the reacting particles collide.
Document 5 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 6 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 7 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 8 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 9 ::: Condensed matter physics (solid-state physics, nanoscience, superconductivity) Bose–Einstein condensation and Superfluids Quantum chemistry (computational chemistry, molecular physics) Atomic physics Molecular physics Nuclear physics (Nuclear structure, nuclear reactions, nuclear matter) Quantum chromodynamics (Lattice QCD, hadron spectroscopy, QCD matter, quark–gluon plasma)
Document 10 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
|
11,377
|
The process of moving from areas of high amounts to areas of low amounts is called what?
|
[
"A. diffusion",
"B. filtration",
"C. transfer",
"D. deposition"
] |
A. diffusion
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 3 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 6 ::: Researchers are asking questions such as "why do we have laboratory work in the curriculum? What is distinctive about laboratory work that cannot be met elsewhere in the curriculum?" Researchers are asking for evidence that the investment of space, time and resources in chemistry laboratories provides value to student learning.
Document 7 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 10 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
|
11,378
|
Vascular tissue allowed these plants to do what?
|
[
"A. have more flowers",
"B. live shorter",
"C. grow taller",
"D. grow smaller"
] |
C. grow taller
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 5 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 6 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 7 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 8 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
|
11,379
|
What were the first forms of life on earth?
|
[
"A. prokaryotes",
"B. aniryotes",
"C. protists",
"D. eukaryotes"
] |
A. prokaryotes
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: The study of prebiotic chemistry: Scientists are studying the chemical reactions that could have occurred on the early Earth that led to the formation of the building blocks of life- amino acids, nucleotides, and lipids- and how these molecules could have formed spontaneously under early Earth conditions. The study of impact events: Scientists are investigating the potential role of impact events- especially meteorites- in the delivery of water and organic molecules to early Earth. The study of the primordial soup: Researchers are investigating the conditions and ingredients that were present on the early Earth that could have led to the formation of the first living organisms, such as the presence of water and organic molecules, and how these ingredients could have led to the formation of the first living organisms. This includes the role of water in the formation of the first cells and in catalysing chemical reactions. The study of the role of minerals: Scientists are investigating the role of minerals like clay in catalysing the formation of organic molecules, thus playing a role in the emergence of life on Earth.The study of the role of energy and electricity: Scientists are investigating the potential sources of energy and electricity that could have been available on the early Earth, and their role in the formation of organic molecules, thus the emergence of life.The study of the early oceans: Scientists are investigating the composition and chemistry of the early oceans and how it may have played a role in the emergence of life, such as the presence of dissolved minerals that could have helped to catalyse the formation of organic molecules.The study of hydrothermal vents: Scientists are investigating the potential role of hydrothermal vents in the origin of life, as these environments may have provided the energy and chemical building blocks needed for its emergence.The study of plate tectonics: Scientists are investigating the role of plate tectonics in creating a diverse range of environments on the early Earth.The study of the early biosphere: Researchers are investigating the diversity and activity of microorganisms in the early Earth, and how these organisms may have played a role in the emergence of life.The study of microbial fossils: Scientists are investigating the presence of microbial fossils in ancient rocks, which can provide clues about the early evolution of life on Earth and the emergence of the first organisms.
Document 5 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 6 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 7 ::: Life arose on Earth once it had cooled enough for oceans to form. The last universal common ancestor (LUCA) was an organism which had ribosomes and the genetic code; it lived some 4 billion years ago. It gave rise to two main branches of prokaryotic life, the bacteria and the archaea. From among these small-celled, rapidly-dividing ancestors arose the Eukaryotes, with much larger cells, nuclei, and distinctive biochemistry. The eukaryotes form a domain that contains all complex cells and most types of multicellular organism, including the animals, plants, and fungi.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 10 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
|
11,380
|
What warms the base of the mantle creating convection currents there?
|
[
"A. the hot regenerate",
"B. mantle soil",
"C. molten lava",
"D. the hot core"
] |
D. the hot core
|
Document 1 ::: This stable configuration is responsible for the geometry of plate motions at the surface due as well as mantle convection. Another name for the degree two structure, a roughly 200 kilometers (120 miles) thick layer of the lower mantle directly above the core–mantle boundary, is the D″ ("D double-prime" or "D prime prime").
Document 2 ::: Testing the hypothesis, however, is beset with difficulties. A central tenet of the plume theory is that the source of melt is significantly hotter than the surrounding mantle, so the most direct test is to measure the source temperature of magmas. This is difficult as the petrogenesis of magmas is extremely complex, rendering inferences from petrology or geochemistry to source temperatures unreliable.
Document 3 ::: Such density variations can be material (from rock chemistry), mineral (from variations in mineral structures), or thermal (through thermal expansion and contraction from heat energy). The manifestation of this varying lateral density is mantle convection from buoyancy forces.How mantle convection directly and indirectly relates to plate motion is a matter of ongoing study and discussion in geodynamics. Somehow, this energy must be transferred to the lithosphere for tectonic plates to move.
Document 4 ::: How do mineral, and metal ore deposits form? What are the fundamental physics of plate tectonics and heat, mass, and fluid transfer through Earth's crust? How can people better interpret geophysical data used to determine the structure and properties of Earth's crust?
Document 5 ::: Subsequent radioactive and tidal heating would raise the temperature of the core to 1,000 K, enough to melt the inner mantle. For Enceladus to still be active, part of the core must have also melted, forming magma chambers that would flex under the strain of Saturn's tides. Tidal heating, such as from the resonance with Dione or from libration, would then have sustained these hot spots in the core and would power the current geological activity.In addition to its mass and modeled geochemistry, researchers have also examined Enceladus's shape to determine if it is differentiated.
Document 6 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 7 ::: Achieving temperatures found within the interior of the earth is just as important to the study of mineral physics as creating high pressures. Several methods are used to reach these temperatures and measure them. Resistive heating is the most common and simplest to measure. The application of a voltage to a wire heats the wire and surrounding area.
Document 8 ::: Another theory is that the mantle flows neither in cells nor large plumes but rather as a series of channels just below Earth's crust, which then provide basal friction to the lithosphere. This theory, called "surge tectonics", was popularized during the 1980s and 1990s. Recent research, based on three-dimensional computer modelling, suggests that plate geometry is governed by a feedback between mantle convection patterns and the strength of the lithosphere.
Document 9 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 10 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
|
11,381
|
What do we call an incorrect test result that should have been positive?
|
[
"A. false positive",
"B. false negative",
"C. external positive",
"D. personal negative"
] |
B. false negative
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 3 ::: "The examiner and Calandra, who was called to advise on the case, faced a moral dilemma. According to the format of the exam, a correct answer deserved a full credit. But issuing a full credit would have violated academic standards by rewarding a student who had not demonstrated competence in the academic field that had been tested (physics).
Document 4 ::: There was a hard, universally used pass-fail criterion for the Eddy Test, and a second chance was normally never allowed. Eddy described the test as having questions with multiple-choice answers, with each of the answers giving some indication of the test-taker's mathematics/physics knowledge, creativity, reasoning ability, and general aptitude. Most answers were weighted – not simply right or wrong – and speed certainly affected the results. No copies of the actual test have been found.
Document 5 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 8 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 9 ::: The SAT Subject Test in Physics had 75 questions and consisted of two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A: First 12 or 13 questions 4 groups of two to four questions each The questions within any one group all relate to a single situation. Five possible answer choices are given before the question. An answer choice can be used once, more than once, or not at all in each group.Part B: Last 62 or 63 questions Each question has five possible answer choice with one correct answer. Some questions may be in groups of two or three.
Document 10 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
|
11,382
|
The conversion factor between solubility and molar solubility of a compound is known as what?
|
[
"A. mass effect",
"B. molar value",
"C. molar mass",
"D. stochastic mass"
] |
C. molar mass
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 3 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 6 ::: Some of the important factors influencing solubility are: Concentration Temperature Solvent mixture composition Polarity Ionic strengthSo one may identify two main families of crystallization processes: Cooling crystallization Evaporative crystallizationThis division is not really clear-cut, since hybrid systems exist, where cooling is performed through evaporation, thus obtaining at the same time a concentration of the solution. A crystallization process often referred to in chemical engineering is the fractional crystallization. This is not a different process, rather a special application of one (or both) of the above.
Document 7 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 8 ::: The solubility is favored by entropy of mixing (ΔS) and depends on enthalpy of dissolution (ΔH) and the hydrophobic effect. The free energy of dissolution (Gibbs energy) depends on temperature and is given by the relationship: ΔG = ΔH – TΔS. Smaller ΔG means greater solubility. Chemists often exploit differences in solubilities to separate and purify compounds from reaction mixtures, using the technique of liquid-liquid extraction. This applies in vast areas of chemistry from drug synthesis to spent nuclear fuel reprocessing.
Document 9 ::: The concept and measure of solubility are extremely important in many sciences besides chemistry, such as geology, biology, physics, and oceanography, as well as in engineering, medicine, agriculture, and even in non-technical activities like painting, cleaning, cooking, and brewing. Most chemical reactions of scientific, industrial, or practical interest only happen after the reagents have been dissolved in a suitable solvent.
Document 10 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
|
11,383
|
What describes the process of vesicles fusing with the plasma membrane and releasing their contents to the outside of the cell?
|
[
"A. autolysis",
"B. endocytosis",
"C. expulsion",
"D. exocytosis"
] |
D. exocytosis
|
Document 1 ::: Methods of importance to cellular biology, such as fluorescence probes (e.g., FRAP, FRET and GFP) and imaging, will be covered as appropriate within the context of the content below. A. Cellular Compartments of Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes: Organization, Dynamics and Functions Cellular membrane systems (e.g., structure and transport across membrane) Nucleus (e.g., envelope and matrix) Mitochondria and chloroplasts (e.g., biogenesis and evolution) B. Cell Surface and Communication Extracellular matrix (including cell walls) Cell adhesion and junctions Signal transduction Receptor function Excitable membrane systems C. Cytoskeleton, Motility and Shape Regulation of assembly and disassembly of filament systems Motor function, regulation and diversity D. Protein, Processing, Targeting and Turnover Translocation across membranes Posttranslational modification Intracellular trafficking Secretion and endocytosis Protein turnover (e.g., proteosomes, lysosomes, damaged protein response) E. Cell Division, Differentiation and Development Cell cycle, mitosis and cytokinesis Meiosis and gametogenesis Fertilization and early embryonic development (including positional information, homeotic genes, tissue-specific expression, nuclear and cytoplasmic interactions, growth factors and induction, environment, stem cells and polarity)
Document 2 ::: Efficiencies of around 1% endosomal escape have been reported for most non-viral carrier strategies, including lipid nanoparticles and cell-penetrating peptides . Moreover, the exact mechanisms of endosome escape remain unclear and are a matter of ongoing research .Apart from endocytosis, some carriers are able to directly merge with the plasma membrane through fusion. Fusion events in biology include vesicle fusion, cell–cell fusion and cell–virus fusion.
Document 3 ::: (B) Metabolic processes include the synthesis of CAPs (gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 4 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 5 ::: In cell biology, a vesicle is a structure within or outside a cell, consisting of liquid or cytoplasm enclosed by a lipid bilayer. Vesicles form naturally during the processes of secretion (exocytosis), uptake (endocytosis), and the transport of materials within the plasma membrane. Alternatively, they may be prepared artificially, in which case they are called liposomes (not to be confused with lysosomes). If there is only one phospholipid bilayer, the vesicles are called unilamellar liposomes; otherwise they are called multilamellar liposomes.
Document 6 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 9 ::: LC3 cleavage is required for the terminal fusion of an autophagosome with its target membrane. LC3 is commonly used as a marker of autophagosomes in immunocytochemistry, because it is the essential part of the vesicle and stays associated until the last moment before its fusion.
Document 10 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
|
11,384
|
Out of the four ways that allele frequencies of a population can be changed, which way is caused by individuals leaving or joining the population?
|
[
"A. spontaneous mutation",
"B. Allopatric speciation",
"C. mass extinction",
"D. gene flow"
] |
D. gene flow
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: : 110 For example, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French naturalist who said the changes an organism makes as it adapts to its environment can be passed down to subsequent generations through gene expression (which genes get turned off). This has been taken up by the new field of epigenetics. : 160–167: 111 The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, one of the first geneticists.
Document 4 ::: Those individuals are more likely to survive to produce offspring bearing that allele. The population will continue for more generations because of the success of these individuals.The academic field of population genetics includes several hypotheses and theories regarding genetic diversity.
Document 5 ::: Population genetics is the branch of evolutionary biology responsible for investigating processes that cause changes in allele and genotype frequencies in populations based upon Mendelian inheritance. Four different forces can influence the frequencies: natural selection, mutation, gene flow (migration), and genetic drift. A population can be defined as a group of interbreeding individuals and their offspring. For human genetics the populations will consist only of the human species. The Hardy–Weinberg principle is a widely used principle to determine allelic and genotype frequencies.
Document 6 ::: Population genetics studies the distribution of genetic differences within populations and how these distributions change over time. Changes in the frequency of an allele in a population are mainly influenced by natural selection, where a given allele provides a selective or reproductive advantage to the organism, as well as other factors such as mutation, genetic drift, genetic hitchhiking, artificial selection and migration.Over many generations, the genomes of organisms can change significantly, resulting in evolution. In the process called adaptation, selection for beneficial mutations can cause a species to evolve into forms better able to survive in their environment.
Document 7 ::: Some introductory courses still teach population genetics this way. Because of the way that the science of population genetics was developed, evolutionary geneticists have tended to think of epistasis as the exception. However, in general, the expression of any one allele depends in a complicated way on many other alleles.
Document 8 ::: Ecology and evolutionary biology have traditionally been the dominant fields of mathematical biology. Evolutionary biology has been the subject of extensive mathematical theorizing. The traditional approach in this area, which includes complications from genetics, is population genetics. Most population geneticists consider the appearance of new alleles by mutation, the appearance of new genotypes by recombination, and changes in the frequencies of existing alleles and genotypes at a small number of gene loci.
Document 9 ::: For example, at The Biology Project Genetic Drift Simulation you can model genetic drift and see how quickly the gene for worm color goes to fixation in terms of generations for different population sizes. Additionally, fixation rates can be modeled using coalescent trees. A coalescent tree traces the descent of alleles of a gene in a population. It aims to trace back to a single ancestral copy called the most recent common ancestor.
Document 10 ::: The role of genetic drift is equivocal; though strongly supported initially by Dobzhansky, it was downgraded later as results from ecological genetics were obtained. The primacy of population thinking: the genetic diversity carried in natural populations is a key factor in evolution. The strength of natural selection in the wild was greater than expected; the effect of ecological factors such as niche occupation and the significance of barriers to gene flow are all important.The idea that speciation occurs after populations are reproductively isolated has been much debated.
|
11,385
|
What kind of bond doesn't form molecules, but instead forms crystals?
|
[
"A. electron bonds",
"B. covalent bonds",
"C. magnetic bonds",
"D. ionic bonds"
] |
D. ionic bonds
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 4 ::: To obtain a full understanding of the material structure and how it relates to its properties, the materials scientist must study how the different atoms, ions and molecules are arranged and bonded to each other. This involves the study and use of quantum chemistry or quantum physics. Solid-state physics, solid-state chemistry and physical chemistry are also involved in the study of bonding and structure.
Document 5 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 6 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 7 ::: (2) Despite their large size, some proteins crystallize readily into symmetric crystals, consistent with the idea of symmetric faces that match up upon association. (3) Proteins bind metal ions; since metal-binding sites must have specific bond geometries (e.g., octahedral), it was plausible to assume that the entire protein also had similarly crystalline geometry. (4) As described above, the cyclol model provided a simple chemical explanation of denaturation and the difficulty of cleaving folded proteins with proteases.
Document 8 ::: In organic chemistry, covalent bonding is much more common than ionic bonding. Covalent bonding also includes many kinds of interactions, including σ-bonding, π-bonding, metal-to-metal bonding, agostic interactions, bent bonds, three-center two-electron bonds and three-center four-electron bonds. The term covalent bond dates from 1939.
Document 9 ::: Atoms can attach to one or more other atoms by chemical bonds to form chemical compounds such as molecules or crystals. The ability of atoms to attach and detach from each other is responsible for most of the physical changes observed in nature. Chemistry is the discipline that studies these changes.
Document 10 ::: Similarly, theories from classical physics can be used to predict many ionic structures. With more complicated compounds, such as metal complexes, valence bond theory is less applicable and alternative approaches, such as the molecular orbital theory, are generally used. See diagram on electronic orbitals.
|
11,386
|
Where does the natural synthesis of lactose occur?
|
[
"A. ovarian tissue",
"B. nervous tissue",
"C. mammary tissue",
"D. liver tissue"
] |
C. mammary tissue
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 4 ::: (B) Metabolic processes include the synthesis of CAPs (gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 5 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 6 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 7 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 8 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 9 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 10 ::: The enzymes involved in fermentations, which are encoded by genes, could not have existed during prebiotic chemistry.Yeast, a form of fungus, occurs in almost any environment capable of supporting microbes, from the skins of fruits to the guts of insects and mammals to the deep ocean. Yeasts convert (break down) sugar-rich molecules to produce ethanol and carbon dioxide.Basic mechanisms for fermentation remain present in all cells of higher organisms. Mammalian muscle carries out fermentation during periods of intense exercise where oxygen supply becomes limited, resulting in the creation of lactic acid.
|
11,387
|
The ratio between the radii of a wheel and axle determines what?
|
[
"A. fundamental mechanical advantage",
"B. theoretical mechanical advantage",
"C. ideal mechanical advantage",
"D. introduced mechanical advantage"
] |
C. ideal mechanical advantage
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 3 ::: Therefore, So the mechanical advantage of an ideal machine M A ideal {\displaystyle \mathrm {MA} _{\text{ideal}}\,} is equal to the velocity ratio, the ratio of input velocity to output velocity The velocity ratio is also equal to the ratio of the distances covered in any given period of time Therefore the mechanical advantage of an ideal machine is also equal to the distance ratio, the ratio of input distance moved to output distance moved This can be calculated from the geometry of the machine. For example, the mechanical advantage and distance ratio of the lever is equal to the ratio of its lever arms. The mechanical advantage can be greater or less than one: If M A > 1 {\displaystyle \mathrm {MA} >1\,} , the output force is greater than the input, the machine acts as a force amplifier, but the distance moved by the load d out {\displaystyle d_{\text{out}}} is less than the distance moved by the input force d in {\displaystyle d_{\text{in}}\,} . If M A < 1 {\displaystyle \mathrm {MA} <1\,} , the output force is less than the input, but the distance moved by the load is greater than the distance moved by the input force.In the screw, which uses rotational motion, the input force should be replaced by the torque, and the velocity by the angular velocity the shaft is turned.
Document 4 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 5 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 6 ::: The questions are divided into four categories: arithmetic, algebra, geometry and problem solving, and the number of questions that the student answered correctly for each category is listed along with the regional mean. Every school receives a more comprehensive analysis, with a complete record of answers given by all students, as well as the percentage of students choosing any given answer for a given question, and a comparison to the percentage of students choosing any given answer for a given question in the whole region. Schools also receive an analysis of their students by mathematical topic, compared to the entire region.
Document 7 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 8 ::: Conceptual problems are often formulated as multiple-choice questions, making them easy to use during in-class discussions, particularly when utilizing active learning, peer instruction, and audience response. An example of a conceptual question in undergraduate thermodynamics is provided below: During adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas, its temperatureincreases decreases stays the same Impossible to tell/need more information The use of conceptual questions in physics was popularized by Eric Mazur, particularly in the form of multiple-choice tests that he called ConcepTests.
Document 9 ::: Machine – Machine learning – Magnetic circuit – Margin of safety – Mass transfer – Materials – Materials engineering – Material selection – Mechanical advantage – Mechanical Biological Treatment – Mechanical efficiency – Mechanical engineering – Mechanical equilibrium – Mechanical work – Mechanics – Mechanochemistry – Mechanosynthesis – Mechatronics – Micromachinery – Microprocessor – Microtechnology – modulus of rigidity-- Molecular assembler – Molecular nanotechnology – Moment – Moment of inertia – Motorcycle – Multi-link suspension
Document 10 ::: The competition consists of 15 questions of increasing difficulty, where each answer is an integer between 0 and 999 inclusive. Thus the competition effectively removes the element of chance afforded by a multiple-choice test while preserving the ease of automated grading; answers are entered onto an OMR sheet, similar to the way grid-in math questions are answered on the SAT. Leading zeros must be gridded in; for example, answers of 7 and 43 must be written and gridded in as 007 and 043, respectively. Concepts typically covered in the competition include topics in elementary algebra, geometry, trigonometry, as well as number theory, probability, and combinatorics.
|
11,388
|
What is the first stage of cellular respiration called?
|
[
"A. photosynthesis",
"B. appetite",
"C. glycolysis",
"D. reproduction"
] |
C. glycolysis
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 4 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 5 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 6 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 9 ::: Since many students who apply to graduate programs in biology do so during the first half of their fourth year, the scope of most questions is largely that of the first three years of a standard American undergraduate biology curriculum. A sampling of test item content is given below:
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,389
|
Many species use their body shape and coloration to avoid being detected by what?
|
[
"A. males",
"B. biology",
"C. predators",
"D. viruses"
] |
C. predators
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 4 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 5 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 6 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 7 ::: The GRE subject test in biology was a standardized test in the United States created by the Educational Testing Service, and is designed to assess a candidate's potential for graduate or post-graduate study in the field of biology. The test is comprehensive and covers—in equal proportions—molecular biology, organismal biology, and ecology and evolution.This exam, like all the GRE subject tests, is paper-based, as opposed to the GRE general test which is usually computer-based. It contains 194 questions, which are to be answered within 2 hours and 50 minutes. Scores on this exam are required for entrance to some biology Ph.D.
Document 8 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 9 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 10 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
|
11,390
|
A reference point is used in measurement to make what?
|
[
"A. focal point",
"B. regression",
"C. deviation",
"D. estimation"
] |
D. estimation
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 3 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 4 ::: Multiple Choice and Free Response Sections of the AP® Physics 1 exam are also assessed on scientific practices. Below are tables representing the practices assessed and their weighting for both parts of the exam
Document 5 ::: The questions are divided into four categories: arithmetic, algebra, geometry and problem solving, and the number of questions that the student answered correctly for each category is listed along with the regional mean. Every school receives a more comprehensive analysis, with a complete record of answers given by all students, as well as the percentage of students choosing any given answer for a given question, and a comparison to the percentage of students choosing any given answer for a given question in the whole region. Schools also receive an analysis of their students by mathematical topic, compared to the entire region.
Document 6 ::: The multiple-choice section is scored immediately after the exam by computer. One point is awarded for each correct answer, no points are credited or deducted for unanswered questions, and points are no longer deducted for having an incorrect answer.Students' answers to the free-response section are reviewed in early June by readers that include high school and college statistics teachers gathered in a designated location. The readers use a pre-made rubric to assess the answers and normally grade only one question in a given exam. Each question is graded on a scale from 0 to 4, with a 4 representing the most complete response. Communication and clarity in the answers receive a lot of emphasis in the grading.Both sections are weighted equally when the composite score is calculated. The composite score is reported on a scale from 1 to 5, with a score of 5 being the highest possible.
Document 7 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 8 ::: The teacher can steer the students either through careful design of the questions (this rules out barometer questions), or through guiding the students to the desired choices. In case of the original barometer question, the examiner may explicitly say that the problem has more than one solution, insist on applying the laws of physics, or give them the "ending point" of the solution: "How did I discover that the building was 410 feet in height with only a barometer? "Herson used the Calandra account as an illustration of the difference between academic tests and assessment in education. Tests, even the ones designed for reliability and validity, are useful, but they are not sufficient in real-world education.Sanders interpreted Calandra's story as a conflict between perfection and optimal solutions: "We struggle to determine a 'best' answer, when a simple call to a building superintendent (the resource man) would quickly provide adequate information."
Document 9 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 10 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
|
11,391
|
Why do adult herbivores in a herd surround their young?
|
[
"A. to protect them as they are vulnerable to predators",
"B. to keep them warm on long cold nights",
"C. to protect them from other adult herbivores",
"D. to show them love"
] |
A. to protect them as they are vulnerable to predators
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 3 ::: When asked about the purpose of sight in humans and animals, even elementary-school children can answer that animals have vision to help them find food and avoid danger (function/adaptation). Biologists have three additional explanations: sight is caused by a particular series of evolutionary steps (phylogeny), the mechanics of the eye (mechanism/causation), and even the process of an individual's development (ontogeny). This schema constitutes a basic framework of the overlapping behavioural fields of ethology, behavioural ecology, comparative psychology, sociobiology, evolutionary psychology, and anthropology. Julian Huxley identified the first three questions. Niko Tinbergen gave only the fourth question, as Huxley's questions failed to distinguish between survival value and evolutionary history; Tinbergen's fourth question helped resolve this problem.
Document 4 ::: Learning objectives for the Wildlife field test include knowledge of wild birds and mammals, wildlife ecology, conservation and management of wildlife, and issues involving wildlife and society, among other objectives. Other topic focuses include understanding food habits and skull morphology of wildlife species; habitat features and influences; wildlife adaptations; and predator/prey relationships and carrying capacity of ecosystems; and how humans, introduced species, and diseases affect wildlife. Hands-on tasks conducted during this test include using an identification key to identify wildlife pelts, skulls, footprints, and calls/sounds; and using Global Positioning System to track tagged specimens.
Document 5 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 6 ::: When Keinath et al. collected data to determine animals' sensitivity to fragmentation, the ADW and other databases allowed them to compile evidence suggesting there are important differences among taxa in how they respond to habitat loss, depending upon habitat specialization and life history.Some scholarly writers will reference the Animal Diversity Web source regardless of the size of the study. One journal about adaptive evolution in pheasants references the habitat elevation of three different types of pheasant species directly from the ADW webpage.The ADW is also a potential resource in the field. Biologists can use the sounds, image gallery, or descriptions to properly distinguish between closely related species.Experts believe ADW can be implemented as a teaching and learning tool in order to improve research and writing skills in college biology courses.
Document 7 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 8 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 9 ::: The content within the book is written using a question and answer format. It contains some 250 questions, which The Science Teacher states each are answered with a "concise and well-formulated essay that is informative and readable." The Science Teacher review goes on to state that many of the answers given in the book are "little gems of science writing". The Science Teacher summarizes by stating that each question is likely to be thought of by a student, and that "the answers are informative, well constructed, and thorough".The book covers information about the planets, the Earth, the Universe, practical astronomy, history, and awkward questions such as astronomy in the Bible, UFOs, and aliens. Also covered are subjects such as the Big Bang, comprehension of large numbers, and the Moon illusion.
Document 10 ::: The premises of evolutionary educational psychology state there are: (a) aspects of mind and brain that have evolved to draw the individuals’ attention to and facilitate the processing of social (folk psychology), biological (folk biology), physical (folk physics) information patterns that facilitated survival or reproductive outcomes during human evolution (Cosmides & Tooby, 1994; Geary, 2005; Gelman, 1990; Pinker, 1997; Shepard, 1994; Simon, 1956); (b) although plastic to some degree, these primary abilities are inherently constrained to the extent associated information patterns tended to be consistent across generations and within lifetimes (e.g., Caramazza & Shelton, 1998; Geary & Huffman, 2002); (c) other aspects of mind and brain evolved to enable the mental generation of potential future social, ecological, or climatic conditions and enable rehearsal of behaviors to cope with variation in these conditions, and are now known as general fluid intelligence, or gF (including skill at everyday reasoning/problem solving; Chiappe & MacDonald, 2005; Geary, 2005; Mithen, 1996); and (d) children are inherently motivated to learn in folk domains, with the associated attentional and behavioral biases resulting in experiences that automatically and implicitly flesh out and adapt these systems to local conditions (Gelman, 1990; Gelman & Williams, 1998; Gelman, 2003).
|
11,392
|
When orders are sent from your brain to your legs, these signals pass through what type of cells?
|
[
"A. nerve cells",
"B. molecules",
"C. skin cells",
"D. mobility cells"
] |
A. nerve cells
|
Document 1 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 2 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 3 ::: Basic questions addressed in molecular neuroscience include the mechanisms by which neurons express and respond to molecular signals and how axons form complex connectivity patterns. At this level, tools from molecular biology and genetics are used to understand how neurons develop and how genetic changes affect biological functions. The morphology, molecular identity, and physiological characteristics of neurons and how they relate to different types of behavior are also of considerable interest.Questions addressed in cellular neuroscience include the mechanisms of how neurons process signals physiologically and electrochemically.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: These questions include how signals are processed by neurites and somas and how neurotransmitters and electrical signals are used to process information in a neuron. Neurites are thin extensions from a neuronal cell body, consisting of dendrites (specialized to receive synaptic inputs from other neurons) and axons (specialized to conduct nerve impulses called action potentials). Somas are the cell bodies of the neurons and contain the nucleus.Another major area of cellular neuroscience is the investigation of the development of the nervous system. Questions include the patterning and regionalization of the nervous system, axonal and dendritic development, trophic interactions, synapse formation and the implication of fractones in neural stem cells, differentiation of neurons and glia (neurogenesis and gliogenesis), and neuronal migration.Computational neurogenetic modeling is concerned with the development of dynamic neuronal models for modeling brain functions with respect to genes and dynamic interactions between genes, on the cellular level (CNGM can also be used to model neural systems as well).
Document 8 ::: Q1 General biology Q2 Cytology Q3 Genetics Q4 Physiology Q5 Biochemistry Q6 Biophysics Q7 Molecular biology Q8 Bioengineering Q9 Zoology and botany
Document 9 ::: Questions in systems neuroscience include how neural circuits are formed and used anatomically and physiologically to produce functions such as reflexes, multisensory integration, motor coordination, circadian rhythms, emotional responses, learning, and memory. In other words, they address how these neural circuits function in large-scale brain networks, and the mechanisms through which behaviors are generated. For example, systems level analysis addresses questions concerning specific sensory and motor modalities: how does vision work? How do songbirds learn new songs and bats localize with ultrasound?
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,393
|
What is the leading cause of soil erosion?
|
[
"A. glacier movement",
"B. volcanic explosions",
"C. running water",
"D. tidal winds"
] |
C. running water
|
Document 1 ::: : 715 "Gravity, geology, and the specific orbit of the moon lead to the tidal patterns of the Earth's oceans and thus to both the environment in which early life evolved and in which tsunamis bring death and destruction to countless thousands of people". : 717–718 Holmes Rolston III says nature embodies 'redemptive suffering' as exemplified by Jesus.
Document 2 ::: Determine what geologic processes have shaped the local terrain and influenced the chemistry. Such processes could include water or wind erosion, sedimentation, hydrothermal mechanisms, volcanism, and cratering.
Document 3 ::: C: Frank Wigglesworth Clarke of USGS and Henry Stephens Washington U: United States Geological Survey (USGS) B: Georg Ernst Wilhelm Berg F: Alexander Fersman G: Victor Goldschmidt M: Brian Mason K: Kenjiro Kimura H: Research on the history of chemistry
Document 4 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 5 ::: At the beginning of the contest, teams have a choice between three problems. Problem A involves a system that requires the use of continuous mathematics, and thus often involves concepts from geometry, physics, or engineering. Problem B involves a system that requires the use of discrete mathematics. In 2016, a "data insights" problem was added, where teams are given access to database files and tasked with using them to answer a question.
Document 6 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 7 ::: Fluvial geomorphologists focus on rivers, how they transport sediment, migrate across the landscape, cut into bedrock, respond to environmental and tectonic changes, and interact with humans. Soils geomorphologists investigate soil profiles and chemistry to learn about the history of a particular landscape and understand how climate, biota, and rock interact. Other geomorphologists study how hillslopes form and change.
Document 8 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
|
11,394
|
What class of organisms help decompose matter to release nutrients and make nutritious food for other organisms ?
|
[
"A. fungi",
"B. bacteria",
"C. yeast",
"D. coral"
] |
A. fungi
|
Document 1 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 2 ::: This includes further education about microbial, molecular and cell biology. Classes can include cell biology, virology, microbial and plant biology
Document 3 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 4 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 5 ::: Of all SAT subject tests, the Biology E/M test was the only SAT II that allowed the test taker a choice between the ecological or molecular tests. A set of 60 questions was taken by all test takers for Biology and a choice of 20 questions was allowed between either the E or M tests. This test was graded on a scale between 200 and 800.
Document 6 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 7 ::: Astro microbiology: the study of microorganisms in outer space Biological agent: the study of those microorganisms which are being used in weapon industries. Nano microbiology: the study of those microscopic organisms on nano level. Predictive microbiology: the quantification of relations between controlling factors in foods and responses of pathogenic and spoilage microorganisms using mathematical modelling
Document 8 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
Document 9 ::: Fungi are the principal decomposers in ecological systems. These and other differences place fungi in a single group of related organisms, named the Eumycota (true fungi or Eumycetes), that share a common ancestor (i.e. they form a monophyletic group), an interpretation that is also strongly supported by molecular phylogenetics. This fungal group is distinct from the structurally similar myxomycetes (slime molds) and oomycetes (water molds).
Document 10 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
|
11,395
|
A pedigree is a chart which shows the inheritance of a trait over several what?
|
[
"A. centuries",
"B. generations",
"C. organisms",
"D. events"
] |
B. generations
|
Document 1 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 2 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 3 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 4 ::: This test consisted of 85 questions. The first 23 questions numbered 1-23 were 'classification questions'. The next 15 questions, numbered 101-115, were called 'relationship analysis questions'. The SAT Subject Test in Chemistry was currently the only SAT that incorporates the relationship analysis questions.
Document 5 ::: In 2013, pgEd created a mobile educational quiz called Map-Ed. Map-Ed invites players to work their way through five questions that address key concepts in genetics and then pin themselves on a world map. Within weeks of its launch, Map-Ed gained over 1,000 pins around the world, spanning across all 7 continents. Translations and new maps linked to questions on topics broadly related to genetics are in development.
Document 6 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 7 ::: For example, a multiple-choice exam designed to assess knowledge of key concepts in natural selection does not meet a number of standards of quality control. One problem with the exam is that the two members of each of several pairs of parallel items, with each pair designed to measure exactly one key concept in natural selection, sometimes have very different levels of difficulty. Another problem is that the multiple-choice exam overestimates knowledge of natural selection as reflected in student performance on a diagnostic essay exam and a diagnostic oral exam, two instruments with reasonably good construct validity. Although scoring concept inventories in the form of essay or oral exams is labor-intensive, costly, and difficult to implement with large numbers of students, such exams can offer a more realistic appraisal of the actual levels of students' conceptual mastery as well as their misconceptions. Recently, however, computer technology has been developed that can score essay responses on concept inventories in biology and other domains, promising to facilitate the scoring of concept inventories organized as (transcribed) oral exams as well as essays.
Document 8 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 9 ::: : 110 For example, Jean-Baptiste Lamarck was a French naturalist who said the changes an organism makes as it adapts to its environment can be passed down to subsequent generations through gene expression (which genes get turned off). This has been taken up by the new field of epigenetics. : 160–167: 111 The mutation theory of evolution was proposed by a Dutch botanist, Hugo de Vries, one of the first geneticists.
Document 10 ::: The College Board suggested a year-long course in biology at the college preparatory level, as well as a one-year course in algebra, and lab experience as preparation for the test. The test required understanding of biological data and concepts, science-related terms, and the ability to effectively synthesize and interpret data from charts, maps, and other visual media. However, most questions from this test were derived from, or are similar to, the pre-2012 AP Biology multiple choice questions. By taking an AP class or a class with similar rigor, one's chances at doing well on this test should have improved.
|
11,396
|
The release of calcium ions initiates what?
|
[
"A. spasms",
"B. exhalation",
"C. cramps",
"D. muscle contractions"
] |
D. muscle contractions
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: NBDE I consists of 400 multiple choice questions emphasizing basic sciences: 1. Human Anatomy, Embryology, and Histology 2. Biochemistry and Physiology 3.
Document 3 ::: Hestenes (1998) found that while "nearly 80% of the could state Newton's Third Law at the beginning of the course, FCI data showed that less than 15% of them fully understood it at the end". These results have been replicated in a number of studies involving students at a range of institutions (see sources section below), and have led to greater recognition in the physics education research community of the importance of students' "active engagement" with the materials to be mastered. The 1995 version has 30 five-way multiple choice questions.Example question (question 4): A large truck collides head-on with a small compact car.
Document 4 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 5 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 6 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 7 ::: (A) represents transport processes include the transport into the cell from the surrounding seawater of primary calcification substrates Ca2+ and HCO3− (black arrows) and the removal of the end product H+ from the cell (gray arrow). The transport of Ca2+ through the cytoplasm to the coccolith vesicle (CV) is the dominant cost associated with calcification. (B) represents metabolic processes include the synthesis of coccolith-associated polysaccharides (CAPs – gray rectangles) by the Golgi complex (white rectangles) that regulate the nucleation and geometry of CaCO3 crystals. The completed coccolith (gray plate) is a complex structure of intricately arranged CAPs and CaCO3 crystals. (C) Mechanical and structural processes account for the secretion of the completed coccoliths that are transported from their original position adjacent to the nucleus to the cell periphery, where they are transferred to the surface of the cell.
Document 8 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 9 ::: The answer sheet had room for 115 answers; however, no test had more than 95 questions. 1–100 were standard multiple-choice bubbles and 101–115 were for 'relationship analysis questions', which were only used for the chemistry exam. The biology test was the only test to use answers 96–100; questions 1–60 were common to both the E and M tests, in addition, the E used 61–80, and the M used 81–100.
Document 10 ::: (b) The size of the merged department of Neurosciences, Physiology and Pharmacology means less interaction between staff, and less collegiate spirit. (c) The changes created two extra levels of administration, so that now five levels existed between academics and the provost. Staff were told at the time that the new organisation would be rolled out to other Faculties across UCL, though this has not happened.
|
11,397
|
The electron released during beta decay is not an orbital electron but an electron whose origin was where?
|
[
"A. in the nucleus",
"B. connected to the nucleus",
"C. outside the nucleus",
"D. orbiting the nucleus"
] |
A. in the nucleus
|
Document 1 ::: Such considerations were apparently reasonable, inasmuch as the laws of quantum mechanics had so recently overturned the laws of classical mechanics. While all these considerations did not "prove" an electron could not exist in the nucleus, they were confusing and challenging for physicists to interpret.
Document 2 ::: The paper consists of single correct type questions. There are questions from high school level physics, mathematics and some questions from general astronomy.
Document 3 ::: b. What did the scientist criticize a proof of? c. What did the scientist criticize the proof of? d. Why did the scientist criticize Max's proof of the theorem?
Document 4 ::: The meaning of this paradox was intensely debated at the time. : 199–200 By about 1930 it was generally recognized that it was difficult to reconcile the proton–electron model for nuclei with the Heisenberg uncertainty relation of quantum mechanics. : 199: 299 This relation, Δx⋅Δp ≥ 1⁄2ħ, implies that an electron confined to a region the size of an atomic nucleus typically has a kinetic energy of about 40 MeV,: 299 which is larger than the observed energy of beta particles emitted from the nucleus.
Document 5 ::: Alpha particles were emitted with characteristic energy, and she expected that this would be true of beta particles too. Hahn and Meitner carefully measured the absorption of beta particles by aluminium, but the results were puzzling. In 1914, James Chadwick found that electrons emitted from the atomic nucleus formed a continuous spectrum, but Meitner found this hard to believe, as it seemed to contradict quantum physics.
Document 6 ::: Understanding the structure of the atomic nucleus is one of the central challenges in nuclear physics.
Document 7 ::: These are conceptual ranking-task questions that help the student before embarking on numerical calculations. The textbook covers most of the basic topics in physics: Mechanics Waves Thermodynamics Electromagnetism Optics Special RelativityThe extended edition also contains introductions to topics such as quantum mechanics, atomic theory, solid-state physics, nuclear physics and cosmology. A solutions manual and a study guide are also available.
Document 8 ::: Theoretically, in orbital models of heavy atoms, the electron orbits partially inside the nucleus (it does not orbit in a strict sense, but has a non-vanishing probability of being located inside the nucleus). A nuclear decay happens to the nucleus, meaning that properties ascribed to the nucleus change in the event. In the field of physics the concept of "mass deficit" as a measure for "binding energy" means "mass deficit of the neutral atom" (not just the nucleus) and is a measure for stability of the whole atom.
Document 9 ::: Later Corbino encouraged Amaldi as a young engineering student to switch to physics. : 67 Majorana had also been an engineering student; he switched to physics after his mathematical ability was recognised by Segrè, leading to an interview with Fermi. : 69 D'Agostino became involved because he was a chemist; he had been the assistant to Giulio Trabacchi, with whom the group collaborated because he had a supply of radium: 95,97 Pontecorvo joined the group later (1934); he came to Rome as a postgraduate to work with Rasetti, a family friend. : 102 .
Document 10 ::: Experiment: Rosalind Franklin used pure DNA to perform X-ray diffraction to produce photo 51. The results showed an X-shape. Analysis: When Watson saw the detailed diffraction pattern, he immediately recognized it as a helix. He and Crick then produced their model, using this information along with the previously known information about DNA's composition, especially Chargaff's rules of base pairing.The discovery became the starting point for many further studies involving the genetic material, such as the field of molecular genetics, and it was awarded the Nobel Prize in 1962. Each step of the example is examined in more detail later in the article.
|
11,398
|
What is created by the polymerization of glucose?
|
[
"A. carbonate",
"B. methane",
"C. glucose",
"D. cellulose"
] |
D. cellulose
|
Document 1 ::: The first part contains 60 multiple-choice questions. Each question has four answer choices. The questions are loosely grouped into 10 sets of 6 items; each set corresponds to a different chemistry topic.
Document 2 ::: The NSEC contains only multiple choice questions. The questions include physical chemistry, organic chemistry, and inorganic chemistry. The stress on biochemistry is more in the NSEC than in the typical school syllabi.
Document 3 ::: Typically, the topics are, in order, descriptive chemistry/laboratory techniques, stoichiometry, gases/liquids/solids, thermodynamics, kinetics, equilibrium, electrochemistry, electronic structure/periodic trends, bonding theories, and organic chemistry. There is no penalty for guessing; a student's score is equal to the number of questions answered correctly. One and a half hours (90 minutes) are allotted for this first part.
Document 4 ::: Most mathematics questions, or calculation questions from subjects such as chemistry, physics, or economics employ a style which does not fall into any of the above categories, although some papers, notably the Maths Challenge papers in the United Kingdom employ multiple choice. Instead, most mathematics questions state a mathematical problem or exercise that requires a student to write a freehand response. Marks are given more for the steps taken than for the correct answer. If the question has multiple parts, later parts may use answers from previous sections, and marks may be granted if an earlier incorrect answer was used but the correct method was followed, and an answer which is correct (given the incorrect input) is returned. Higher-level mathematical papers may include variations on true/false, where the candidate is given a statement and asked to verify its validity by direct proof or stating a counterexample.
Document 5 ::: The second part contains 8 free response questions. Complete written explanations and calculations are required for full credit on a question, and partial credit is awarded. More thorough knowledge of basic theories is required, and often there are questions on less-emphasized portions of normal high school chemistry curricula, such as organic chemistry and coordination chemistry. One hour and 45 minutes (105 minutes) are allowed for this section.
Document 6 ::: Carbon atoms bond readily to other carbon atoms; this allows the building of arbitrarily long macromolecules and polymers in a process known as catenation. "What we normally think of as 'life' is based on chains of carbon atoms, with a few other atoms, such as nitrogen or phosphorus", per Stephen Hawking in a 2008 lecture, "carbon has the richest chemistry.
Document 7 ::: The 2014 AP Chemistry exam was the first administration of a redesigned test as a result of a redesigning of the AP Chemistry course. The exam format is now different from the previous years, with 60 multiple choice questions (now with only four answer choices per question), 3 long free response questions, and 4 short free response questions. The new exam has a focus on longer, more in depth, lab-based questions. The penalty for incorrect answers on the multiple choice section was also removed. More detailed information can be found at the related link.
Document 8 ::: As green chemistry research results in new polymers that can be recycled at the materials level, greater adoption of deep-loop value cycling approaches can be implemented. Rule #3: Power Autonomy Every transformation of materials in nature - from turtle to tree - requires energy. In nature, the energy source is solar power captured biologically through photosynthesis.
Document 9 ::: C1 chemistry is the chemistry of one-carbon molecules. Although many compounds and ions contain only one carbon, stable and abundant C-1 feedstocks are the focus of research. Four compounds are of major industrial importance: methane, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and methanol. Technologies that interconvert these species are often used massively to match supply to demand.
Document 10 ::: As early as the 1860s, experiments demonstrated that biologically relevant molecules can be produced from interaction of simple carbon sources with abundant inorganic catalysts. The spontaneous formation of complex polymers from abiotically generated monomers under the conditions posited by the "soup" theory is not straightforward. Besides the necessary basic organic monomers, compounds that would have prohibited the formation of polymers were also formed in high concentration during the Miller–Urey and Joan Oró experiments. Biology uses essentially 20 amino acids for its coded protein enzymes, representing a very small subset of the structurally possible products. Since life tends to use whatever is available, an explanation is needed for why the set used is so small.
|
11,399
|
Fungi reproduce asexually by fragmentation and either sexually or asexually via what lightweight, windblown structures?
|
[
"A. lesions",
"B. seeds",
"C. spores",
"D. ions"
] |
C. spores
|
Document 1 ::: In biology, a spore is a unit of sexual (in fungi) or asexual reproduction that may be adapted for dispersal and for survival, often for extended periods of time, in unfavourable conditions. Spores form part of the life cycles of many plants, algae, fungi and protozoa.Bacterial spores are not part of a sexual cycle, but are resistant structures used for survival under unfavourable conditions. Myxozoan spores release amoeboid infectious germs ("amoebulae") into their hosts for parasitic infection, but also reproduce within the hosts through the pairing of two nuclei within the plasmodium, which develops from the amoebula.In plants, spores are usually haploid and unicellular and are produced by meiosis in the sporangium of a diploid sporophyte.
Document 2 ::: Finally, the fungus causing witches' broom in cacao, Moniliophthora perniciosa, has a primarily homothallic biology despite having A and B mating type-like genes in its genome.Among the 250 known species of aspergilli, about 36% have an identified sexual state Among those Aspergillus species that exhibit a sexual cycle the overwhelming majority in nature are homothallic (self-fertilizing). Selfing in the homothallic fungus Aspergillus nidulans involves activation of the same mating pathways characteristic of sex in outcrossing species, i.e. self-fertilization does not bypass required pathways for outcrossing sex but instead requires activation of these pathways within a single individual. Fusion of haploid nuclei occurs within reproductive structures termed cleistothecia, in which the diploid zygote undergoes meiotic divisions to yield haploid ascospores.
Document 3 ::: The student's score was based entirely on his or her performance in answering the multiple-choice questions. The questions covered a broad range of topics in general biology. There were more specific questions related respectively on ecological concepts (such as population studies and general Ecology) on the E test and molecular concepts such as DNA structure, translation, and biochemistry on the M test.
Document 4 ::: Aspergillus nidulans (also called Emericella nidulans when referring to its sexual form, or teleomorph) is one of many species of filamentous fungi in the phylum Ascomycota. It has been an important research organism for studying eukaryotic cell biology for over 50 years, being used to study a wide range of subjects including recombination, DNA repair, mutation, cell cycle control, tubulin, chromatin, nucleokinesis, pathogenesis, metabolism, and experimental evolution. It is one of the few species in its genus able to form sexual spores through meiosis, allowing crossing of strains in the laboratory.
Document 5 ::: Ask A Biologist is a pre-kindergarten through high school program dedicated to answering questions from students, their teachers, and parents. The primary focus of the program is to connect students and teachers with working scientists through a question and answer Web e-mail form. The companion website also includes a large collection of free content and activities that can be used inside, as well as outside, of the classroom. The award-winning program has been continuously running for more than 14 years, with the assistance of more than 150 volunteer scientists, faculty, and graduate students in biology and related fields. In 2010 the program released its new website interface and features that became the subject for articles in the journals Science and PLoS Biology.
Document 6 ::: Fungi can be both multicellular and unicellular organisms, and are distinguished from other microbes by the way they obtain nutrients. Fungi secrete enzymes into their surroundings, to break down organic matter. Fungal genetics uses yeast, and filamentous fungi as model organisms for eukaryotic genetic research, including cell cycle regulation, chromatin structure and gene regulation.Studies of the fungus Neurospora crassa have contributed substantially to understanding how genes work. N. crassa is a type of red bread mold of the phylum Ascomycota.
Document 7 ::: Some workers hold that this is an obsolete concept, and that molecular phylogeny allows accurate placement of species which are known from only part of their life cycle. Others retain the term "deuteromycetes," but give it a lowercase "d" and no taxonomic rank.Historically, Article 59 of the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature permitted mycologists to give asexually reproducing fungi (anamorphs) separate names from their sexual states (teleomorphs); but this practice was discontinued as of 1 January 2013.The dual naming system can be confusing for novices. It is essential for workers in plant pathology, mold identification, medical mycology, and food microbiology, fields in which asexually reproducing fungi are commonly encountered.
Document 8 ::: Ashbya gossypii, cotton pathogen, subject of genetics studies (polarity, cell cycle). Aspergillus nidulans, mold subject of genetics studies. Coprinus cinereus, mushroom (genetic studies of mushroom development, genetic studies of meiosis). Cryptococcus neoformans, opportunistic human pathogen Neurospora crassa, orange bread mold (genetic studies of meiosis, metabolic regulation, and circadian rhythm).
Document 9 ::: The test had 50 multiple choice questions that were to be answered in one hour. All questions had five answer choices. Students received 1 point for every correct answer, lost ¼ of a point for each incorrect answer, and received 0 points for questions left blank. The questions covered a broad range of topics. Approximately 10-14% of questions focused on Numbers and Operations, 38-42% focused on Algebra and functions, 38-42% focused on Geometry (including Euclidean, coordinate, three-dimensional, and trigonometry), and 6-10% focused on Data analysis, Statistics, and probability.
Document 10 ::: The discipline of biology devoted to the study of fungi is known as mycology (from the Greek μύκης mykes, mushroom). In the past mycology was regarded as a branch of botany, although it is now known that fungi are genetically more closely related to animals than to plants. Abundant worldwide, most fungi are inconspicuous because of the small size of their structures, and their cryptic lifestyles in soil or on dead matter.
|
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